CCNA part: 2 Practice Exam Questions and Answers – Part 2/3
Test your CCNA knowledge with 18 exam-style questions, clean answer reveals, and concise explanations. Topics include: Examine the output below: R1#show int g0/1 GigabitEthernet0/1 is down, line protocol is down (notconnect) Hardware is Gi. Follow @CertPunch and visit certpunch.com for more certification practice videos and study content.
Chapters:
00:00 Intro
00:28 Question 1 of 18
01:29 Question 2 of 18
02:10 Question 3 of 18
02:58 Question 4 of 18
04:00 Question 5 of 18
04:50 Question 6 of 18
05:25 Question 7 of 18
06:16 Question 8 of 18
07:01 Question 9 of 18
08:20 Question 10 of 18
09:10 Question 11 of 18
09:59 Question 12 of 18
10:41 Question 13 of 18
11:34 Question 14 of 18
12:16 Question 15 of 18
13:02 Question 16 of 18
13:45 Question 17 of 18
14:29 Question 18 of 18
What you will practice
- Examine the output below: R1#show int g0/1 GigabitEthernet0/1 is down, line protocol is down (notconnect) Har…
- Which 2.4 GHz channels should be used to avoid interference?
- Examine the diagram below: You need to configure a new dynamic interface, which will be used to map VLAN 20 t…
- R1 has the following routes in its routing table. Which route will it use to forward a packet destined for 20…
- VLAN 10 does not yet exist on SW1. You issue the switchport access vlan 10 command on its G0/1 interface. Wha…
- Which part of the SDN architecture consists of a virtual network of tunnels?
Answers and explanations
Tap a question to expand the answer and the exam reasoning. Try to commit to your own pick first.
Q1. Examine the output below: R1#show int g0/1 GigabitEthernet0/1 is down, line protocol is down (notconnect) Hardware is Gigabit Ethernet, address is 0d32.a452.b104 (bia 0d32.a452.b104) What will be the IPv6 address of G0/1 if you use the ipv…
Answer: B. 2001:db8:0:1:f32:a4ff:fe52:b104
The correct answer proves the ability to apply the EUI-64 process to a MAC address. The key step is flipping the 7th bit of the first octet from 0 to 1.
Q2. Which 2.4 GHz channels should be used to avoid interference?
Answer: C. 1, 6, 11
The correct answer demonstrates knowledge of standard Wi-Fi channel planning. The three non-overlapping channels in the 2.4 GHz band are 1, 6, and 11.
Q3. Examine the diagram below: You need to configure a new dynamic interface, which will be used to map VLAN 20 to WLAN 20. Which tab should you use to do this configuration?
Answer: D. Controller
The correct answer identifies the location for configuring interface VLAN mappings on a WLC. The Wireless and WLANs tabs are for client-related settings, not core interface configuration.
Q4. R1 has the following routes in its routing table. Which route will it use to forward a packet destined for 203.0.113.72?
Answer: C. 203.0.113.64/26, learned via OSPF, metric 20
The correct answer demonstrates understanding of the most specific prefix match rule for routing decisions. The /26 subnet is the longest match for the destination address.
Q5. VLAN 10 does not yet exist on SW1. You issue the switchport access vlan 10 command on its G0/1 interface. What is the result of this command?
Answer: A. VLAN 10 is automatically created.
The switch will automatically create VLAN 10 when an interface is assigned to it. The other options describe the switch's behavior if the VLAN does not exist.
Q6. Which part of the SDN architecture consists of a virtual network of tunnels?
Answer: C. Overlay
The overlay is a virtual network built on the physical underlay, often using tunnels. VXLAN is a specific tunneling protocol, not the architecture layer.
Q7. Which statement about DHCP Snooping is true?
Answer: D. It discards all DHCP server messages received on untrusted ports.
DHCP snooping discards rogue DHCP server messages on untrusted ports. The elimination cue is that trusted ports are allowed to pass these messages.
Q8. Two servers, SRV1 and SRV2, are both configured with the IP address 2001:db8:0:1::1/64. Which of the following terms best describes this type of address?
Answer: B. Anycast
An anycast address is assigned to multiple devices to deliver traffic to the nearest one. The trap is mistaking it for a unicast address based on its format.
Q9. Which of the following commands configures a valid recursive network route?
Answer: C. ipv6 route 2001:db8::/64 2001:db8:1::1
The correct answer proves a recursive route by specifying a next-hop IP without an exit interface. The distractor trap is confusing it with a directly connected route, which uses an exit interface.
Q10. Which of the following statements about traditional and controller-based SDN networks is true?
Answer: B. Traditional networks use a distributed control plane.
The correct answer proves that traditional networks use a distributed control plane, while controller-based uses a centralized one. The distractor trap is confusing the control plane with the data or management planes.
Q11. Which of the following commands configures a type 9 enable secret?
Answer: C. enable algorithm-type scrypt secret ccna123
The answer proves the command syntax for a type 9, scrypt-based enable secret. The distractors use the wrong algorithm type, making them invalid.
Q12. Which Catalyst Center feature uses AI to automate network troubleshooting, including root cause analysis and corrective actions?
Answer: B. MR engine
The answer identifies the MR engine, the specific feature for AI-powered automated troubleshooting. The distractors are incorrect feature names or describe different functionalities.
Q13. R1 and R2 are OSPF neighbors, but they remain in the 2WAY state without proceeding to FULL. Which of the following could be the reason for this?
Answer: D. R1 and R2 are DROTHERS.
The correct answer proves a specific OSPF adjacency rule. DROTHER routers only form FULL adjacencies with the DR and BDR, not each other.
Q14. In which OSPF neighbor state are the DR and BDR elected?
Answer: A. 2-way
The correct answer proves that DR/BDR election occurs in the 2-way state after neighbors recognize each other but before full adjacency forms. States like Exchange occur after election.
Q15. In which of the following situations is UDP preferred over TCP?
Answer: B. When it is acceptable for some packets to be lost.
The correct answer proves that UDP is preferred when low latency is critical and some packet loss is acceptable. The trap is choosing TCP's reliability feature, which UDP lacks.
Q16. Which of the following is used to restrict which IP addresses can manage a Cisco AireOS WLC?
Answer: D. CPU ACL
The correct answer identifies the specific Cisco WLC security feature for management access. FlexConnect, L2, and TACACS+ serve different network or authentication purposes.
Q17. Which of the following ports is also known as a tagged port?
Answer: D. Trunk port
The correct answer connects the standard networking term for multi-VLAN traffic. Access ports are untagged, and SVIs and routed ports are not ports in the same context.
Q18. When BPDU Filter is enabled in global config mode, on which ports is BPDU Filter activated?
Answer: B. All PortFast-enabled ports
The correct answer describes the behavior of the 'spanning-tree portfast bpdufilter default' command. This setting specifically affects PortFast-enabled ports, not all ports or trunk ports.
More CCNA part: 2 drills and other practice exams are on @CertPunch. New rounds drop every few days at certpunch.com.