CCNA Practice Test – 160 Free Exam Questions with Answers

CCNA

160 questions · instant answer feedback · concise explanations · free

  1. Question 1 of 160Which of the following is a valid VRRP virtual MAC address?

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    Correct answer: A. 00:00:5e:00:01:a0

    A valid VRRP virtual MAC address must start with 00:00:5e:00:01. The other options are invalid MAC address formats for VRRP.

  2. Question 2 of 160Which of the following is a unique local IPv6 address?

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    Correct answer: B. fd45:93ac:8a8f:1::1

    Unique local IPv6 addresses begin with the prefix fd. The other options represent link-local, multicast, or global unicast addresses.

  3. Question 3 of 160Examine the network below. PC1, PC2, and PC3 have 8.8.8.8 configured as their DNS server. R1 has a default route to the Internet. Which of the following configurations are required for PC1, PC2, and PC3 to use the server at 8.8.8.8 to resolve DNS queries?

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    Correct answer: D. No configurations are needed.

    DNS queries are standard IP traffic that routers forward normally; no special helper or relay configuration is needed on the router for this to work.

  4. Question 4 of 160Which of the following commands configure a Rapid-PVST+ Edge port?

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    Correct answer: B. SW1(config-if)# spanning-tree portfast

    PortFast is the standard Cisco IOS command to configure an interface as an edge port, bypassing the STP listening and learning states.

  5. Question 5 of 160Examine the network below. PC1 needs to be able to communicate with PC2. R1 and R3 already have the necessary configurations. You configure the following static routes on R2: R2(config)# ipv6 route 2001:db8:0:1::/64 2001:db8:0:12::1 R2(config)# ipv6 route 2001:db8:0:3::/64 2001:db8:0:23::2 R2(config)# interface g0/0 R2(config-if)# ipv6 address 2001:db8:0:12::2/64 R2(config-if)# no shutdown R2(config-if)# interface g0/1 R2(config-if)# ipv6 address 2001:db8:0:23::1/64 R2(config-if)# no shutdown However, PC1 is unable to ping PC2. Which of the following is most likely the reason for this issue?

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    Correct answer: D. You need to enable IPv6 routing on R2.

    IPv6 routing must be explicitly enabled with 'ipv6 unicast-routing' on a Cisco router for it to forward IPv6 packets between its interfaces.

  6. Question 6 of 160PC1 is connected to SW1's G0/1 interface. DHCP snooping is enabled. The router for the LAN is R1, which also acts as the DHCP server. However, PC1 is unable to receive an IP address via DHCP. Examine the log messages on R1 below. Which command(s) should be used on SW1 to allow PC1 to receive an IP address from R1 via DHCP? R1# *Jun 6 01:46:46.763: DHCPD: inconsistent relay information. *Jun 6 01:46:46.763: DHCPD: relay information option exists, but giaddr is zero. SW1(config)# interface g0/1

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    Correct answer: B. SW1(config)# no ip dhcp snooping information option

    The correct answer proves that disabling Option 82 on a switch port resolves a DHCP issue when the server cannot process the option. The trap is thinking the switch port needs to be trusted instead of removing the option from the switch.

  7. Question 7 of 160Which command can be configured to prevent a port from sending STP BPDUs?

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    Correct answer: A. spanning-tree bpdufilter enable

    The correct answer proves that BPDU filter prevents a port from sending or receiving BPDUs. BPDUGuard prevents reception, and PortFast is for edge ports.

  8. Question 8 of 160Which protocol can be used to gather information about a device's connected neighbors in a multi-vendor network?

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    Correct answer: C. LLDP

    The correct answer proves that LLDP is the industry-standard protocol for neighbor discovery on multi-vendor networks. CDP is Cisco proprietary and would not work with other vendors.

  9. Question 9 of 160Which WLC interface is dedicated for OOB management?

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    Correct answer: B. service port interface

    The correct answer proves that the service port interface is the dedicated physical interface for out-of-band management on a WLC. The management interface is logical.

  10. Question 10 of 160Which of the following commands configures a directly attached network route?

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    Correct answer: D. R1(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.255.128.0 g0/0

    The correct answer proves that a directly attached route specifies an exit interface without a next-hop IP address. The other options are either recursive or host routes.

  11. Question 11 of 160In the SECURITY tab of a Cisco AireOS WLC, you configure a CPU Access Control List. Which of the following statements describes the purpose of this ACL?

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    Correct answer: D. It controls management traffic destined for the WLC.

    The correct answer proves that a CPU ACL protects the WLC's management CPU by filtering traffic destined for the controller itself. It does not control traffic to or from access points.

  12. Question 12 of 160Which of the following is not a valid static route?

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    Correct answer: A. ipv6 route 2001:db8:0:1::/64 fe80::68a7:9389:9807:db9a

    The correct answer proves that a static route with a link-local next-hop must be fully specified with an exit interface. The other options are all valid static route configurations.

  13. Question 13 of 160Examine the output of show interfaces f0/1 on SW1 below. What does the output tell us? FastEthernet0/1 is up, line protocol is up Hardware is Fast Ethernet, address is 0cf5.a452.b101 (bia 0cf5.a452.b101) Description: ## FW1 ## MTU 1500 bytes, BW 100000 Kbit, DLY 100 usec, reliability 250/255, txload 1/255, rxload 1/255 Encapsulation ARPA, loopback not set Keepalive not set Auto-duplex (Full), Auto Speed (100), 100BaseTX/FX ARP type: ARPA, ARP Timeout 04:00:00 Last input 18:52:43, output 00:00:01, output hang never Last clearing of "show interface" counters never Queueing strategy: fifo Output queue 0/40, 0 drops; input queue 0/75, 0 drops 5 minute input rate 12000 bits/sec, 6 packets/sec 5 minute output rate 24000 bits/sec, 6 packets/sec 14488019 packets input, 2783320210 bytes Received 345346 broadcasts, 0 runts, 0 giants, 0 throttles 261028 input errors, 261028 CRC, 0 frame, 0 overrun, 0 ignored 0 watchdog, 84207 multicast 0 input packets with dribble condition detected 19658279 packets output, 3529106068 bytes, 0 underruns 0 output errors, 0 collisions, 1 interface resets 0 babbles, 0 late collision, 0 deferred 0 lost carrier, 0 no carrier 0 output buffer failures, 0 output buffers swapped out

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    Correct answer: D. SW1 F0/1 has received messages with an incorrect FCS.

    The answer correctly interprets that CRC errors indicate frames with an incorrect FCS. This tests the ability to identify the specific error type from the 'show interfaces' output.

  14. Question 14 of 160You issue the following commands on R1: R1(config)# enable password ccna1 R1(config)# enable secret ccna2 R1(config)# username jeremy secret ccna3 R1(config)# line console 0 R1(config-line)# password ccna4 R1(config-line)# login When connecting to the console port of R1, which username and/or password will you have to use to access the CLI?

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    Correct answer: C. password: ccna4

    The answer shows that the 'line console 0' configuration takes precedence for direct console access, which requires the specified password.

  15. Question 15 of 160In the output of show ip ssh, which version indicates a device that accepts both SSHv1 and SSHv2 connections?

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    Correct answer: D. Version 1.99

    SSH version 1.99 indicates backward compatibility with both SSHv1 and SSHv2. Option C, Version 2, is a distractor that only supports the newer, more secure version.

  16. Question 16 of 160You issue the following commands on R1. Which of the following statements is true?

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    Correct answer: D. R1 will load-balance packets destined for 10.0.0.0/24 over three next hops.

    Equal-cost load balancing occurs between the three routes with a default administrative distance of 1. The route with AD 2 is a floating backup and is excluded.

  17. Question 17 of 160What IP address do VRRP routers use to communicate with each other?

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    Correct answer: D. 224.0.0.18

    VRRP routers use the multicast address 224.0.0.18 to communicate and share state information. Options A and C are multicast addresses used by other protocols.

  18. Question 18 of 160Which type of ML involves training with labeled data sets?

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    Correct answer: B. Supervised learning

    Supervised learning uses labeled data sets to train models. Unsupervised learning, in contrast, works with unlabeled data.

  19. Question 19 of 160You issue the following command on R1: R1(config-router)# default-information originate What kind of router is R1 as a result of this command?

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    Correct answer: C. ASBR

    The router becomes an ASBR by injecting an external default route into the OSPF domain. The trap is confusing ASBR with ABR, which redistributes between OSPF areas, not external routes.

  20. Question 20 of 160R1 is connected to a broadcast OSPF segment with four other routers. R1 is neither DR nor BDR for the segment. With how many routers on the segment does R1 exchange LSAs?

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    Correct answer: D. Two

    DROTHERs only exchange LSAs with the DR and BDR. The question tests knowledge of OSPF adjacency reduction on multi-access networks.

  21. Question 21 of 160What is the 802.11 frame type of association request and response messages?

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    Correct answer: A. Management

    These are management frames used for client association. The distractor 'Probe' is a related but incorrect frame type.

  22. Question 22 of 160Which of the following protocols is commonly used for a secure site-to-site VPN?

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    Correct answer: A. IPsec

    IPsec is the industry standard for encrypting site-to-site VPN traffic over untrusted networks. TLS is typically for client-server.

  23. Question 23 of 160Examine R1's routing table below. Which interface will R1 use to forward a packet destined for IP address 198.0.32.1? S* 0.0.0.0/0 [1/0] via 192.168.16.6 D E2 0.0.0.0/4 [110/20] via 192.168.15.5, 00:00:11, GigabitEthernet0/4 C 192.168.1.0/24 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/0 L 192.168.1.1/32 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/0 C 192.168.12.0/24 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/1 L 192.168.12.1/32 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/1 C 192.168.13.0/24 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/2 L 192.168.13.1/32 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/2 C 192.168.14.0/24 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/3 L 192.168.14.1/32 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/3 C 192.168.15.0/24 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/4 L 192.168.15.1/32 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/4 C 192.168.16.0/24 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/5 L 192.168.16.1/32 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/5 R 198.0.0.0/19 [120/1] via 192.168.12.2, 00:00:20, GigabitEthernet0/1 D E2 198.0.20.0/22 [110/20] via 192.168.13.3, 00:00:11, GigabitEthernet0/2 D EX 198.0.24.0/21 [170/3072] via 192.168.14.4, 00:00:54, GigabitEthernet0/3

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    Correct answer: D. GigabitEthernet0/5

    The default route is used. R1 forwards packets to the next hop via its directly connected interface. The test is longest prefix match.

  24. Question 24 of 160R1's G0/1 is configured with IP address 10.20.20.1/24, and R1's G0/2 is configured with IP address 10.20.21.1/24. Which of the following commands will activate OSPF on both interfaces with a single command?

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    Correct answer: D. network 10.20.16.0 0.0.7.255 area 0

    The OSPF network command uses a wildcard mask to match interface IP addresses. The correct wildcard mask option covers both subnet addresses, while other options only match one or neither.

  25. Question 25 of 160Examine the network diagram below: You configure the four ACLs below on R1: R1(config)# ip access-list extended 101 R1(config-ext-nacl)# permit udp host 10.0.0.10 host 192.168.1.100 eq 514 R1(config-ext-nacl)# deny udp any host 192.168.1.100 eq 514 R1(config-ext-nacl)# permit ip any any R1(config)# ip access-list extended 102 R1(config-ext-nacl)# permit udp host 10.0.0.10 eq 514 host 192.168.1.100 R1(config-ext-nacl)# deny udp any eq 514 host 192.168.1.100 R1(config-ext-nacl)# permit ip any any R1(config)# ip access-list extended 103 R1(config-ext-nacl)# permit tcp host 10.0.0.10 host 192.168.1.100 eq 514 R1(config-ext-nacl)# deny tcp any host 192.168.1.100 eq 514 R1(config-ext-nacl)# permit ip any any R1(config)# ip access-list extended 104 R1(config-ext-nacl)# permit tcp host 10.0.0.10 eq 514 host 192.168.1.100 R1(config-ext-nacl)# deny tcp any eq 514 host 192.168.1.100 R1(config-ext-nacl)# permit ip any any Which ACL, when applied outbound on R1's G0/0 interface, permits only PC1 to access the Syslog server on SRV1? All other traffic should be unaffected.

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    Correct answer: B. ACL 101

    ACL 101 correctly permits UDP syslog from PC1 to the server and denies other UDP syslog traffic to the server, while allowing all other traffic through.

  26. Question 26 of 160Which of the following commands will not result in an interface being disabled, but will generate Syslog messages when a Port Security violation occurs?

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    Correct answer: B. switchport port-security violation restrict

    The restrict action discards violating frames and logs the event but does not shut down the port, unlike the shutdown action.

  27. Question 27 of 160You configure DHCP snooping on SW1 as below. SW1(config)# ip dhcp snooping SW1(config)# no ip dhcp snooping information option SW1(config)# interface g0/0 SW1(config-if)# ip dhcp snooping trust However you notice that SW1 does not inspect DHCP messages on its untrusted interfaces. Which of the following is the most likely reason for this?

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    Correct answer: B. You need to enable DHCP snooping on the VLAN.

    DHCP snooping must be explicitly enabled on a VLAN to inspect traffic. The common mistake is assuming global configuration is sufficient, while VLAN-level enablement is required.

  28. Question 28 of 160Which of the following is an example of MFA?

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    Correct answer: D. You swipe a key card and then do a fingerprint scan.

    The correct answer proves that multi-factor authentication requires two distinct factors, like something you have and something you are. Option A is a distractor because both factors are biometric.

  29. Question 29 of 160Examine R1's routing table. Which interface will it use to forward a packet destined for 203.0.113.113?

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    Correct answer: A. GigabitEthernet0/1

    The correct answer proves that the router uses the most specific route to determine the exit interface. The longer prefix length for 203.0.113.96/27 is more specific than 203.0.113.96/28.

  30. Question 30 of 160Which of the following commands correctly configures a LAG connected to a Cisco AireOS WLC?

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    Correct answer: B. channel-group 1 mode on

    This question verifies knowledge that Cisco WLCs require static LAG configuration using the 'mode on' command. The other options describe dynamic LAG protocols for switches and are incorrect.

  31. Question 31 of 160Which of these commands can be used to make a FastEthernet interface have an OSPF cost of 1000?

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    Correct answer: C. R1(config-router)# auto-cost reference-bandwidth 100000

    The answer proves that OSPF cost is calculated using the reference bandwidth. This question tests the ability to calculate the correct reference bandwidth needed to achieve a desired cost.

  32. Question 32 of 160Which type of API is used for communications between a controller and the network devices?

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    Correct answer: D. Southbound

    This question confirms that southbound APIs manage the controller-to-device layer, while northbound APIs connect controllers to applications.

  33. Question 33 of 160Examine the JSON-formatted data below. Which of the following statements is true? { "network": { "version": 2, "renderer": "networkd", "wifis": { "wlp2s0b1": { "dhcp4": "no", "dhcp6": "no", "addresses": [ "192.168.0.21/24" ], "nameservers": { "addresses": [ "192.168.0.1", "8.8.8.8" ] }, "access-points": { "network_ssid_name": { "password": "************" } }, "routes": [ { "to": "default", "via": "192.168.0.1" } ] } } }

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    Correct answer: B. A curly brace is missing.

    This question tests validation of JSON syntax. The key is to recognize that the structure is missing a closing brace, making it syntactically invalid.

  34. Question 34 of 160What is the correct abbreviation of the IPv6 address 2000:ad08:0009:0900:1200:0000:0000:1000?

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    Correct answer: C. 2000:ad08:9:900:1200::1000

    This question verifies the rules for abbreviating IPv6 addresses: removing leading zeros from each block and using '::' to represent the longest sequence of zeros.

  35. Question 35 of 160Which of the following WPA3 features provides superior security over WPA2?

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    Correct answer: D. SAE

    This answer correctly identifies SAE as the WPA3 feature that secures against brute-force attacks on the PSK, a security improvement over WPA2's PSK.

  36. Question 36 of 160Which of the following cloud service models provides the most control to the customer?

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    Correct answer: A. IaaS

    IaaS provides the most customer control, as it allows management of the OS and applications. PaaS and SaaS offer less control as abstraction layers increase.

  37. Question 37 of 160What kind of static route specifies only the exit interface?

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    Correct answer: B. Directly connected

    A directly connected static route specifies only an exit interface. A fully specified route includes both the next-hop IP and the exit interface.

  38. Question 38 of 160R1's interfaces have the following IP addresses: G0/1 – 192.168.1.1/24 G0/2 – 192.168.2.1/24 Loopback1 – 10.10.10.1/32 Loopback2 – 10.10.10.2/32 You enable OSPF on R1. Which IP address will be selected as its OSPF RID?

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    Correct answer: D. 10.10.10.2

    OSPF RID is the highest loopback IP address by default. The answer demonstrates the OSPF selection priority: loopback over physical interfaces.

  39. Question 39 of 160Examine the network below. AP1 and AP2 are lightweight APs controlled by WLC1. FlexConnect is not used in the network. Hosts associated with AP1 and AP2 use SW1's SVI interfaces as their default gateway. What path will traffic from PC1 take to reach PC2? Consider the physical path taken by the bits, not the logical path.

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    Correct answer: A. PC1 > AP1 > SW1 > WLC1 > SW1 > WLC1 > SW1 > AP2 > PC2

    In a central forwarding model, traffic is tunneled between APs and WLC, physically passing through the switch. The trap is the direct logical path.

  40. Question 40 of 160In Dynamic NAT, which command is used to define the traffic that should be translated?

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    Correct answer: C. R1(config)# access-list

    An access-list identifies the specific traffic to be translated by matching the source IP addresses of packets that need NAT translation.

  41. Question 41 of 160You can configure SW1's F0/5 interface with the following commands: SW1(config-if)# switchport access vlan 10 SW1(config-if)# switchport mode access Which command can you configure on the interface to allow it to also carry traffic in VLAN 20, without configuring it as a trunk port?

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    Correct answer: C. switchport voice vlan 20

    The switchport voice vlan command allows a secondary, tagged VLAN to be carried on an access port without turning it into a trunk port.

  42. Question 42 of 160A malicious user who intends to harm the security of an organization's systems is an example of what?

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    Correct answer: C. Threat

    A malicious user is a threat, a potential danger to security. The distractors define vulnerability, a weakness, and exploit, a method to use that weakness.

  43. Question 43 of 160What bit pattern is found at the beginning of the IPv6 header?

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    Correct answer: A. 0110

    The Version field in the IPv6 header uses the binary pattern 0110, which is the decimal number 6. The distractors are incorrect version numbers.

  44. Question 44 of 160Which of the following commands configures a router to be a stratum 8 NTP server?

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    Correct answer: D. ntp master

    This answer confirms that the 'ntp master' command with no argument defaults to a stratum 8 server. The distractors involve incorrect client commands or potential variable stratum levels.

  45. Question 45 of 160Your organization occasionally sends fake phishing emails to employees, luring employees to click the links inside. Employees who click on these links find a message telling them to be more cautious about phishing. Which element of a security program is this?

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    Correct answer: A. User awareness

    This question demonstrates that user awareness is the security principle being applied. It is not training, as it focuses on awareness rather than structured instruction.

  46. Question 46 of 160Which of the following statements about UDP is true?

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    Correct answer: A. UDP uses a checksum for error detection.

    UDP uses a checksum for basic error detection. Option D is a distractor that confuses UDP with TCP, as UDP lacks sequencing and acknowledgment.

  47. Question 47 of 160Which of the following DSCP markings indicates a low drop precedence?

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    Correct answer: B. AF31

    The DSCP AF class uses the third digit for drop precedence, where a lower number means lower drop priority and higher survivability during congestion.

  48. Question 48 of 160A PC and an IP Phone are connected to the network via SW1's G0/1 interface. You issue the following configurations on SW1 G0/1: SW1(config-if)# switchport mode access SW1(config-if)# switchport access vlan 10 SW1(config-if)# switchport voice vlan 11 Which of the following statements are true? (select two)

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    Correct answer: E. Traffic sent to and from the IP Phone is tagged.

    Voice VLAN traffic is tagged with VLAN ID, while data VLAN traffic is untagged. The trap confusingly states traffic is untagged, but the voice VLAN setting explicitly enables tagging.

  49. Question 49 of 160Which of the following WLAN QoS settings is defined as Best Effort?

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    Correct answer: D. Silver

    Silver is defined as Best Effort for standard data traffic. The distractors are higher-priority categories like Gold and Platinum.

  50. Question 50 of 160Which of the following Port Security violation modes will neither disable the interface nor increment the violation counter when an unauthorized frame is received?

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    Correct answer: A. protect

    The 'protect' mode simply discards violating frames without taking more drastic action. The other options disable the interface or log violations.

  51. Question 51 of 160The DR of an OSPF broadcast network segment of four routers goes down due to a hardware failure. Which of the following statements is true?

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    Correct answer: B. The BDR will become the DR, and an election will be held to decide the new BDR.

    The correct answer proves that the BDR immediately becomes the new DR upon failure, triggering an election for a new BDR. The distractor trap is assuming a full re-election for both roles occurs simultaneously.

  52. Question 52 of 160Which protocol should you use to securely connect to the GUI of a WLC?

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    Correct answer: D. HTTPS

    The correct answer proves that HTTPS provides encrypted communication for sensitive data like credentials. SSH, Telnet, and HTTP are eliminated because they are either unencrypted or not the standard for web-based GUI access.

  53. Question 53 of 160Which IPv6 address type is automatically configured on an interface when the ipv6 enable command is used?

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    Correct answer: B. Link Local

    The correct answer proves that the ipv6 enable command automatically configures a Link Local address. The distractor cue is knowing that other address types require specific configuration commands.

  54. Question 54 of 160Which version(s) of WPA support(s) Enterprise mode?

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    Correct answer: D. WPA, WPA2, and WPA3

    The correct answer proves that all WPA versions support Enterprise mode with 802.1X and a RADIUS server. The distractor trap is assuming newer versions removed this feature.

  55. Question 55 of 160You must subnet the 192.168.1.0/24 network to make the following subnets: Engineering: 67 hosts Sales: 33 hosts HR: 15 hosts Finance: 7 hosts. Following best practice, if you make each subnet only as large as necessary, what should be the network address and prefix length of the HR subnet?

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    Correct answer: D. 192.168.1.192/27

    The correct answer proves that a /27 subnet provides exactly 30 usable addresses for 15 hosts. The distractor cue is recognizing that a /26 is unnecessarily large and wastes addresses.

  56. Question 56 of 160You are configuring a DHCP pool (192.168.1.0/24) on R1 to be used for client devices in the LAN. However, you want to reserve the first 10 usable IP addresses to be used for R1's own IP address as well as servers. Which command should you use on R1 to reserve those IP addresses?

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    Correct answer: C. R1(config)# ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.1.1 192.168.1.10

    The answer proves the correct command, ip dhcp excluded-address, used in global configuration mode to exclude a range of addresses from being assigned by DHCP. The distractors are syntactically incorrect commands.

  57. Question 57 of 160Which action does a switch take on an unknown unicast frame?

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    Correct answer: D. Flood

    The answer proves that a switch floods frames when it cannot find a destination MAC in its table. The distractors describe actions for known unicast, broadcast, or dropped frames.

  58. Question 58 of 160Which of the following lists the Syslog severity levels from most to least severe?

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    Correct answer: B. Emergency, Alert, Critical, Error, Warning, Notice, Informational, Debugging

    The answer proves the correct order of Syslog severity levels from highest to lowest. The distrators list the levels in an incorrect sequence.

  59. Question 59 of 160Which of the following commands will cause a GigabitEthernet interface to have an OSPF cost of 10?

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    Correct answer: C. auto-cost reference-bandwidth 10000

    The correct answer proves the reference-bandwidth calculation for OSPF cost. The trap is a distractor with a bandwidth value that produces an incorrect cost.

  60. Question 60 of 160Which of the following features drops traffic if the traffic rate exceeds the configured limit?

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    Correct answer: A. Policing

    The correct answer proves the function of policing in QoS. Shaping is a trap, as it buffers excess traffic instead of dropping it.

  61. Question 61 of 160Which of the following configures a router as a DHCP client?

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    Correct answer: B. R1(config-if)# ip address dhcp

    The correct answer proves the command to configure a router interface as a DHCP client. The trap is the command for configuring a DHCP server.

  62. Question 62 of 160Which of the following FHRPs can be used to provide a redundant IP address between a Cisco and Juniper router?

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    Correct answer: A. VRRP

    The correct answer proves that VRRP is an open standard suitable for multi-vendor environments. HSRP is a Cisco-proprietary trap.

  63. Question 63 of 160Which of the following commands uses an industry standard protocol to negotiate the creation and maintenance of a LAG?

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    Correct answer: A. channel-group 1 mode active

    The correct answer proves the LACP protocol for negotiating a LAG. The 'on' mode is a trap, as it is a static, non-negotiating configuration.

  64. Question 64 of 160Which of the following static routes relies on proxy ARP to function?

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    Correct answer: B. ip route 203.0.113.0 255.255.255.0 gigabitethernet0/0

    The correct answer proves that a static route with only an exit interface depends on proxy ARP. The option with an explicit next-hop IP is a trap.

  65. Question 65 of 160Which HTTP response code is expected if a client tries to access a resource that doesn't exist on the server?

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    Correct answer: C. 404

    The correct answer proves the meaning of the 404 Not Found status code. The 200 OK option is a trap for a successful request.

  66. Question 66 of 160Which of the following commands can be used to configure a pre-hashed password (using MD5) to protect privileged EXEC mode?

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    Correct answer: D. enable secret 5 <hash>

    The correct answer proves the syntax for configuring a pre-hashed secret password. The trap is a command that hashes the password on the local device.

  67. Question 67 of 160R1 learns a route to 10.0.0.0/24 via OSPF. Which of the following commands configures a floating static route with an AD 1 higher than the OSPF route?

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    Correct answer: B. ip route 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.1 111

    The correct answer proves that OSPF's default AD is 110, so 111 is 1 higher. Distractors use values that are either too high or lower than OSPF's AD.

  68. Question 68 of 160An enterprise installs keypads that require staff to enter a code to gain access to secure rooms. What is this an example of?

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    Correct answer: C. Physical access control

    The correct answer demonstrates understanding of physical security controls. User awareness and training are not the type of control, and MFA involves multiple factors.

  69. Question 69 of 160Examine the output below: R1#show int g0/1 GigabitEthernet0/1 is down, line protocol is down (notconnect) Hardware is Gigabit Ethernet, address is 0d32.a452.b104 (bia 0d32.a452.b104) What will be the IPv6 address of G0/1 if you use the ipv6 address 2001:db8:0:1::/64 eui-64 command on it?

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    Correct answer: B. 2001:db8:0:1:f32:a4ff:fe52:b104

    The correct answer proves the ability to apply the EUI-64 process to a MAC address. The key step is flipping the 7th bit of the first octet from 0 to 1.

  70. Question 70 of 160Which 2.4 GHz channels should be used to avoid interference?

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    Correct answer: C. 1, 6, 11

    The correct answer demonstrates knowledge of standard Wi-Fi channel planning. The three non-overlapping channels in the 2.4 GHz band are 1, 6, and 11.

  71. Question 71 of 160Examine the diagram below: You need to configure a new dynamic interface, which will be used to map VLAN 20 to WLAN 20. Which tab should you use to do this configuration?

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    Correct answer: D. Controller

    The correct answer identifies the location for configuring interface VLAN mappings on a WLC. The Wireless and WLANs tabs are for client-related settings, not core interface configuration.

  72. Question 72 of 160R1 has the following routes in its routing table. Which route will it use to forward a packet destined for 203.0.113.72?

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    Correct answer: C. 203.0.113.64/26, learned via OSPF, metric 20

    The correct answer demonstrates understanding of the most specific prefix match rule for routing decisions. The /26 subnet is the longest match for the destination address.

  73. Question 73 of 160VLAN 10 does not yet exist on SW1. You issue the switchport access vlan 10 command on its G0/1 interface. What is the result of this command?

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    Correct answer: A. VLAN 10 is automatically created.

    The switch will automatically create VLAN 10 when an interface is assigned to it. The other options describe the switch's behavior if the VLAN does not exist.

  74. Question 74 of 160Which part of the SDN architecture consists of a virtual network of tunnels?

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    Correct answer: C. Overlay

    The overlay is a virtual network built on the physical underlay, often using tunnels. VXLAN is a specific tunneling protocol, not the architecture layer.

  75. Question 75 of 160Which statement about DHCP Snooping is true?

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    Correct answer: D. It discards all DHCP server messages received on untrusted ports.

    DHCP snooping discards rogue DHCP server messages on untrusted ports. The elimination cue is that trusted ports are allowed to pass these messages.

  76. Question 76 of 160Two servers, SRV1 and SRV2, are both configured with the IP address 2001:db8:0:1::1/64. Which of the following terms best describes this type of address?

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    Correct answer: B. Anycast

    An anycast address is assigned to multiple devices to deliver traffic to the nearest one. The trap is mistaking it for a unicast address based on its format.

  77. Question 77 of 160Which of the following commands configures a valid recursive network route?

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    Correct answer: C. ipv6 route 2001:db8::/64 2001:db8:1::1

    The correct answer proves a recursive route by specifying a next-hop IP without an exit interface. The distractor trap is confusing it with a directly connected route, which uses an exit interface.

  78. Question 78 of 160Which of the following statements about traditional and controller-based SDN networks is true?

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    Correct answer: B. Traditional networks use a distributed control plane.

    The correct answer proves that traditional networks use a distributed control plane, while controller-based uses a centralized one. The distractor trap is confusing the control plane with the data or management planes.

  79. Question 79 of 160Which of the following commands configures a type 9 enable secret?

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    Correct answer: C. enable algorithm-type scrypt secret ccna123

    The answer proves the command syntax for a type 9, scrypt-based enable secret. The distractors use the wrong algorithm type, making them invalid.

  80. Question 80 of 160Which Catalyst Center feature uses AI to automate network troubleshooting, including root cause analysis and corrective actions?

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    Correct answer: B. MR engine

    The answer identifies the MR engine, the specific feature for AI-powered automated troubleshooting. The distractors are incorrect feature names or describe different functionalities.

  81. Question 81 of 160R1 and R2 are OSPF neighbors, but they remain in the 2WAY state without proceeding to FULL. Which of the following could be the reason for this?

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    Correct answer: D. R1 and R2 are DROTHERS.

    The correct answer proves a specific OSPF adjacency rule. DROTHER routers only form FULL adjacencies with the DR and BDR, not each other.

  82. Question 82 of 160In which OSPF neighbor state are the DR and BDR elected?

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    Correct answer: A. 2-way

    The correct answer proves that DR/BDR election occurs in the 2-way state after neighbors recognize each other but before full adjacency forms. States like Exchange occur after election.

  83. Question 83 of 160In which of the following situations is UDP preferred over TCP?

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    Correct answer: B. When it is acceptable for some packets to be lost.

    The correct answer proves that UDP is preferred when low latency is critical and some packet loss is acceptable. The trap is choosing TCP's reliability feature, which UDP lacks.

  84. Question 84 of 160Which of the following is used to restrict which IP addresses can manage a Cisco AireOS WLC?

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    Correct answer: D. CPU ACL

    The correct answer identifies the specific Cisco WLC security feature for management access. FlexConnect, L2, and TACACS+ serve different network or authentication purposes.

  85. Question 85 of 160Which of the following ports is also known as a tagged port?

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    Correct answer: D. Trunk port

    The correct answer connects the standard networking term for multi-VLAN traffic. Access ports are untagged, and SVIs and routed ports are not ports in the same context.

  86. Question 86 of 160When BPDU Filter is enabled in global config mode, on which ports is BPDU Filter activated?

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    Correct answer: B. All PortFast-enabled ports

    The correct answer describes the behavior of the 'spanning-tree portfast bpdufilter default' command. This setting specifically affects PortFast-enabled ports, not all ports or trunk ports.

  87. Question 87 of 160A piece of software that can be used to crack a weak password is an example of what?

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    Correct answer: A. Exploit

    An exploit is a tool used to take advantage of a vulnerability. The trap is confusing the tool with the weakness it targets.

  88. Question 88 of 160Which of the following features limits the reach of a broadcast frame?

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    Correct answer: B. VLANs

    VLANs segment a physical network into separate broadcast domains. The trap is subnetting, which affects Layer 3 forwarding, not broadcast domains.

  89. Question 89 of 160You want to ensure that a switch port is disabled if it stops receiving BPDUs from its neighbor. Which command should you use to achieve this?

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    Correct answer: C. spanning-tree guard loop

    The correct answer proves that Loop Guard disables a port upon BPDU loss to prevent Layer-2 loops. The distractor cue is recognizing that BPDU Filter prevents BPDUs from being sent, not received.

  90. Question 90 of 160Which layer of the SDN Architecture contains the fabric?

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    Correct answer: B. Infrastructure

    The answer proves the infrastructure layer is responsible for the physical and logical network fabric. The distractors describe other SDN layers like application or control.

  91. Question 91 of 160A router, a WLC, and several LWAPs are connected to SW1. ROAS is used for routing between subnets. FlexConnect is enabled for some WLANs. Which of the following ports on SW1 should be trunk ports?

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    Correct answer: B. The ports connected to the router, WLC, and APs.

    The answer proves that ports to the router, WLC, and APs must be trunks to carry multiple VLANs. The distractors incorrectly omit at least one device that requires trunking.

  92. Question 92 of 160You issue the following configurations: R1(config)# ip route 203.0.113.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.1 R1(config)# ip route 203.0.113.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.1 R1(config)# ip route 203.0.113.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.3.1 2 R1(config)# ip route 203.0.113.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.4.1 1 How many routes will be added to R1's routing table?

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    Correct answer: C. Three

    The answer proves that only one route with the best administrative distance is added. The distractors fail to account for the tie between the three routes with an AD of 1.

  93. Question 93 of 160Which of the following statements about MAC address learning and aging is true?

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    Correct answer: A. Dynamic entries are cleared from the MAC address table after 300 seconds of inactivity.

    The correct answer proves that dynamic MAC entries age based on inactivity, not absolute time. Static entries never age, eliminating other options.

  94. Question 94 of 160What does a Cisco router use to name its RSA keys by default?

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    Correct answer: A. FQDN

    The correct answer proves that RSA keys are named using the router's FQDN. The trap is confusing the hostname-only naming with the full FQDN standard.

  95. Question 95 of 160Which of the following provisioning and management tools is written in Go?

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    Correct answer: B. Terraform

    The correct answer proves knowledge of a popular IaC tool's programming language. Puppet and Chef are Ruby-based, Ansible is Python-based, making them distinguishable distractors.

  96. Question 96 of 160Examine the network below. You configure ACL 101 to prevent hosts in 10.0.0.0/24 and 172.16.0.0/24 from using HTTPS to access SRV1. You want to apply the ACL to a single interface to achieve this goal. Which interface should this ACL be applied to, and in which direction?

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    Correct answer: A. Outbound on R1 G0/0

    Applying the ACL outbound on R1's G0/0 interface filters traffic close to the source. The elimination cue is the rule that extended ACLs should be placed near the source.

  97. Question 97 of 160Examine the diagram below. Which configuration on SW1 G0/0 allows PC1 (VLAN 10) and PH1 (VLAN 20) to be in separate VLANs without configuring G0/0 in trunk mode?

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    Correct answer: A. switchport access vlan 10

    The correct answer proves that a voice VLAN can be assigned to an access port to carry a second tagged VLAN. The distractor cue is knowing that a standard access port can only be assigned a single access VLAN.

  98. Question 98 of 160You want to activate OSPF on R1's G0/1 and G0/2 interfaces with a single command. The IP address of G0/1 is 172.21.31.28/25 and G0/2 is 172.21.34.29/30. Which of the following commands should you use on R1?

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    Correct answer: D. network 172.16.0.0 0.15.255.255 area 0

    The answer proves the wildcard mask logic in an OSPF network command to match multiple subnets. The distractors use incorrect wildcard masks that fail to match both interface addresses.

  99. Question 99 of 160You issue the switchport mode trunk command on an interface but receive an error message. Which of the following is the reason for this output?

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    Correct answer: C. The switch supports both ISL and 802.1Q.

    The correct answer proves that a switch must manually configure trunk encapsulation when in auto mode and supports both ISL and 802.1Q. The trap is assuming modern switches that don't support ISL don't require this configuration.

  100. Question 100 of 160In OAuth2.0, which party grants authorization to the client?

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    Correct answer: A. Resource owner

    The correct answer identifies the OAuth2.0 role representing the end-user who has authority over the resource. The other options are server-side components and do not grant authorization.

  101. Question 101 of 160Which of the following AP modes will tunnel user data traffic to a centralized controller?

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    Correct answer: A. Local

    The correct answer proves that Local mode APs use CAPWAP to tunnel all data traffic to a controller. Other options like FlexConnect tunnel control but switch data locally.

  102. Question 102 of 160Examine the network below: R1, R2, and R3 do not have any static routes configured. What is the minimum number of static routes that must be configured to allow PC1 and PC3 to communicate?

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    Correct answer: B. 4

    The correct answer proves that each router needs a route to the destination network not directly connected. The distractor trap is counting routes to all intermediate networks instead of just the final destination networks.

  103. Question 103 of 160How can network automation help reduce operational expenses (OpEx)?

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    Correct answer: A. Generating device configurations requires fewer man-hours.

    The correct answer proves that automation reduces OpEx by minimizing man-hours for repetitive tasks like configuration changes. Other options confuse design or hardware effects.

  104. Question 104 of 160You issue the following command on R1's G0/0 interface: ipv6 address 2001:db8:0:1::/64 eui-64. The MAC address of G0/0 is 962f.6d8a.8e27. What will be the IPv6 address of R1's G0/0 interface?

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    Correct answer: C. 2001:db8:0:1:942f:6dff:fe8a:8e27

    The answer proves the correct EUI-64 process, which involves flipping the 7th bit of the MAC and inserting FFFE. The distractors incorrectly apply the bit-flip step, a common trap.

  105. Question 105 of 160Which of the following statements about EtherChannel is false?

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    Correct answer: B. EtherChannel eliminates the risk of Layer-2 loops in a LAN

    EtherChannel can create a larger logical link but does not eliminate all loop risks. The trap is that STP must still prevent loops within the EtherChannel.

  106. Question 106 of 160R1's G0/1 is configured with the following IP addresses: G0/1: 192.168.50.129/25 G0/2: 192.168.50.1/25 Which of the following options enables OSPF on both interfaces with a single command?

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    Correct answer: C. network 192.168.50.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

    This wildcard mask correctly matches both interfaces to the OSPF network command. The cue is that the range must include both /25 subnets.

  107. Question 107 of 160Which of the following commands configures a floating default route?

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    Correct answer: A. ipv6 route ::/0 g1 2001:db8:1234:568::1234:ccb:2 2

    This is a valid IPv6 floating default route. The correct answer uses an administrative distance of 2, which makes it a backup route.

  108. Question 108 of 160Four switches are interconnected by a total of seven links. How many STP designated ports are in the LAN?

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    Correct answer: B. 7

    Each physical link requires a designated port. The exam rule is that there are as many designated ports as there are active links.

  109. Question 109 of 160Which feature modifies specific fields in the L2 and/or L3 headers to facilitate the categorization of messages for QoS?

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    Correct answer: C. Marking

    Marking modifies L2 and L3 headers to indicate QoS treatment. Classification is the process of using this mark for sorting, not modifying it.

  110. Question 110 of 160Which IP address do HSRPv2 routers use to communicate with each other?

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    Correct answer: D. 224.0.0.102

    HSRPv2 uses the multicast address 224.0.0.102 for hello messages. The trap is confusing this address with the Virtual IP or the HSRPv1 address.

  111. Question 111 of 160A router receives a packet destined to 172.20.15.200. Which routing table entry will it use to forward the packet?

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    Correct answer: C. D 172.20.15.192/28 [90/200] via 10.1.1.1, 00:03:12, Gi0/0

    The router uses the longest prefix match for forwarding. The cue is the /28 subnet, which covers the destination address.

  112. Question 112 of 160A switch port allows VLANs 10, 11, and 12. Which of the following commands can be used to modify the list of allowed VLANs to also include VLAN 13?

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    Correct answer: D. switchport trunk allowed vlan add 13

    The 'add' keyword appends VLANs to the existing list. The trap is that omitting 'add' overwrites the entire allowed list.

  113. Question 113 of 160Which of the following statements about the HSRP VIP and virtual MAC is true?

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    Correct answer: C. The active and standby routers share a VIP and virtual MAC address.

    HSRP uses a single shared VIP and virtual MAC. The elimination cue is that only the active router responds to traffic for this shared address.

  114. Question 114 of 160Hosts connected to SW1 are divided into VLANs 10, 11, and 12. SW1 G0/1 is connected to R1 for inter-VLAN routing via ROAS. Which of the following options correctly configures SW1 G0/1?

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    Correct answer: A. SW1(config)# interface g0/1

    In ROAS, the switch port must be a trunk carrying the VLANs. The key cue is that switch subinterfaces are not used; they are configured on the router.

  115. Question 115 of 160Which Cisco NAT term describes the IP address of an internal host from the perspective of hosts in an external network?

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    Correct answer: B. Inside global

    The correct answer proves that 'Inside global' is the term for the translated IP address that internal hosts use to communicate with external networks. The trap confuses it with 'Outside global', which is an external host's real IP address.

  116. Question 116 of 160Which WPA mode uses 802.1X to control access to the WLAN?

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    Correct answer: D. Enterprise mode

    The correct answer proves that Enterprise mode uses 802.1X for centralized authentication. The trap confuses it with 'RADIUS mode', which is the server technology, not the WPA operational mode.

  117. Question 117 of 160A router receives a packet destined to 203.0.113.78. Which routing table entry will it use to forward the packet?

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    Correct answer: F. D 203.0.113.72/29 [90/458] via 192.0.2.10, 00:02:17, Gi0/0

    The correct answer proves that the router uses the most specific route, determined by the longest prefix length. The elimination cue is the /29 subnet, which is more specific than the other options.

  118. Question 118 of 160You configure the following routes on a Cisco router. Which route(s) will be inserted into the routing table? ip route 203.0.113.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.1 ip route 203.0.113.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.2 2 ip route 203.0.113.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.3 3 ip route 203.0.113.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.4 1

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    Correct answer: D. The routes via 192.168.1.1 and 192.168.1.4

    Correct answer proves OSPF uses the highest active loopback IP for its Router ID. The trap is that OSPF ignores physical interface IPs if loopbacks are present.

  119. Question 119 of 160Which of the following terms is equivalent to the MAC address of a WAP's radio?

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    Correct answer: A. BSSID

    Correct answer proves the BSSID is the MAC address of a wireless access point's radio. The trap confusing BSSID with SSID.

  120. Question 120 of 160Two LWAPs and a WLC are connected to a switch. Additionally, a router is used for routing between subnets via ROAS. FlexConnect is not in use. Which of the following ports on the switch should be trunks?

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    Correct answer: D. The ports connected to the WLC and router

    Correct answer proves that only the WLC and router ports require trunking. The trap is that LWAPs, when not using FlexConnect, do not need a trunk.

  121. Question 121 of 160Which command can be used to apply an ACL to the VTY lines, limiting SSH access to the device?

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    Correct answer: D. access-class 1 in

    Correct answer proves that the access-class command applies an ACL to VTY lines. The trap is using access-group or ip access-group, which are for interfaces.

  122. Question 122 of 160A router has the following IP addresses: GigabitEthernet0/1: 10.20.20.129/25 GigabitEthernet0/2: 10.20.20.1/25 Loopback0: 10.20.21.129/25 Loopback1: 10.20.21.1/25. You then use the command router ospf 1 to create OSPF process 1 on the router. What is the router's OSPF RID at this point?

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    Correct answer: F. 10.20.21.129

    Correct answer proves OSPF uses the highest active loopback IP for its Router ID. The trap is that OSPF ignores physical interface IPs if loopbacks are present.

  123. Question 123 of 160Which authentication method secures HTTPS connections to websites?

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    Correct answer: A. Digital certificates

    Correct answer proves digital certificates are used to authenticate server identity in HTTPS. The trap is that AAA, 802.1X, and MFA are for user access, not website trust.

  124. Question 124 of 160Which of the following is an example of physical access control?

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    Correct answer: C. Installing MFA locks for server rooms.

    Correct answer proves MFA locks control physical access to a location. The trap is confusing device security (console, Wi-Fi, TACACS+) with physical security.

  125. Question 125 of 160When configuring NAT, what is the role of an ACL?

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    Correct answer: D. To define which packets should be translated

    Correct answer proves an ACL in NAT defines which packets to translate. The trap is that ACLs define inside local IPs for translation, not the global IPs or to filter traffic.

  126. Question 126 of 160What is the correct TCP connection establishment sequence?

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    Correct answer: D. SYN, SYN-ACK, ACK

    Correct answer proves the TCP three-way handshake is SYN, SYN-ACK, ACK. The trap is options with incorrect segment order.

  127. Question 127 of 160A router receives a packet destined to 10.10.50.37. Which routing table entry will it use to forward the packet?

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    Correct answer: E. O 10.10.50.32/27 [110/22] via 172.16.1.1, 00:00:34, Gi0/0

    Correct answer proves the router uses the most specific (longest prefix) matching route. The trap is a less-specific route that also matches the destination IP.

  128. Question 128 of 160Which of the following DHCP messages are always discarded when received on a DHCP Snooping untrusted port?

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    Correct answer: D. ACK, OFFER

    This demonstrates that DHCP Snooping discards server-originated OFFER and ACK messages on untrusted ports to prevent rogue servers. The distractors include client-originated messages, which are permitted.

  129. Question 129 of 160What is the effect of the passive-interface command on an OSPF-enabled interface?

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    Correct answer: C. The router will advertise the interface's network prefix to other OSPF routers, but won't send hello messages out of the interface.

    The correct answer proves that passive interfaces stop OSPF hellos, preventing neighbor adjacency while still advertising the network prefix via LSAs. The other options incorrectly describe the function of sending hellos or forming neighbors.

  130. Question 130 of 160Which mode enables an LWAP to locally switch client traffic between the wired and wireless LANs?

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    Correct answer: B. FlexConnect

    The correct answer proves that FlexConnect mode allows a lightweight access point to switch traffic locally without sending it to the controller. The other options are incorrect modes that don't provide this specific switching capability.

  131. Question 131 of 160Which of the following commands configures an enable secret pre-hashed with the scrypt algorithm?

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    Correct answer: A. enable secret 9 <hash>

    The correct answer proves that 'enable secret 9' uses the newer scrypt hashing algorithm. The trap is using '8', which refers to the older MD5 algorithm, not the pre-hashed value itself.

  132. Question 132 of 160Which SNMP message type is an unacknowledged notification from a managed device to the NMS?

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    Correct answer: D. Trap

    The correct answer proves that a Trap is an unacknowledged alert. The elimination cue is 'Inform', which is a similar but acknowledged message type.

  133. Question 133 of 160Which WPA3 security feature protects the PSK against brute-force attacks?

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    Correct answer: B. SAE

    The correct answer proves that SAE (Simultaneous Authentication of Equals) replaces PSK with a more secure handshake resistant to brute-force attacks. The other options are WPA3 features but not for this specific protection.

  134. Question 134 of 160Which of the following often leads to TCP synchronization, affecting the efficiency of communications over the network?

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    Correct answer: B. Tail drop

    The correct answer proves that tail drop indiscriminately drops packets, causing multiple TCP sessions to back off simultaneously. The elimination cue is WRED, which is designed to avoid this by randomly dropping packets.

  135. Question 135 of 160Which type of ML trains a model by rewarding or penalizing its actions in a given environment?

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    Correct answer: D. Reinforcement learning

    The correct answer proves that reinforcement learning uses a reward/penalty system to train an agent. The trap is 'Incentive-based learning', a distractor term that sounds similar but is not a standard ML category.

  136. Question 136 of 160A router receives a packet destined to 198.51.100.123. Which routing table entry will it use to forward the packet?

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    Correct answer: A. R 198.51.100.120/29 [120/5] via 192.0.2.3, 00:00:45, Gi0/3

    The correct answer proves that the router uses the most specific (longest prefix) match in the routing table. The elimination cue is the /32 route, which is more specific than the /29 but does not cover the destination IP address.

  137. Question 137 of 160After configuring ip arp inspection vlan <vlan>, what check does the switch perform on ARP messages received on untrusted interfaces in the VLAN?

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    Correct answer: B. It checks if the ARP Sender MAC and Sender IP fields have a matching entry in the DHCP Snooping table.

    The correct answer proves that Dynamic ARP Inspection validates the sender's MAC and IP against the DHCP snooping binding table. The distractor is checking the target fields, which is incorrect for validating the sender's legitimacy.

  138. Question 138 of 160Which IPsec mode encrypts and encapsulates the entire original IP packet?

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    Correct answer: B. Tunnel mode

    The correct answer proves that Tunnel mode encrypts the whole original packet and adds a new IP header. The elimination cue is Transport mode, which encrypts only the payload, not the original header.

  139. Question 139 of 160A network design requires a router to have the same IP address on multiple interfaces. Which technology can make this possible?

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    Correct answer: A. VRF

    The correct answer proves that VRF allows the same IP address on different interfaces by creating separate routing instances. The distractor 'Subnetting' is an elimination cue because it enforces unique IP addresses.

  140. Question 140 of 160A router receives a packet destined to 192.168.1.250. Which routing table entry will it use to forward the packet?

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    Correct answer: A. S* 0.0.0.0/0 [1/0] via 203.0.113.254

    The correct answer proves that the default route matches any destination IP. The elimination cue is the /0 subnet mask, which makes it a catch-all route when no specific match exists.

  141. Question 141 of 160Which logical plane is responsible for routers exchanging OSPF messages with each other to share routing information and build their routing tables?

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    Correct answer: C. Control plane

    The correct answer proves that the control plane handles routing protocol exchanges to build routing tables. The distractor 'Data plane' is an elimination cue, as it only forwards packets based on the control plane's information.

  142. Question 142 of 160Which of the following commands can be used to confirm the status of PDs connected to a PoE switch?

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    Correct answer: C. show power inline

    The correct answer proves that 'show power inline' displays the status and power usage of connected devices. The trap distractors are variations that either don't exist or don't provide the requested detailed information.

  143. Question 143 of 160Your network design requires that GigabitEthernet interfaces have an OSPF cost of 100. Which of the following commands should be configured on your routers to achieve this?

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    Correct answer: C. auto-cost reference-bandwidth 100000

    The correct answer proves how to set the OSPF reference bandwidth to calculate a cost of 100 for a 1 Gbps link. The trap is using a value that results in the wrong cost, like 10000.

  144. Question 144 of 160When configuring DHCP relay on a Cisco router, where must you configure the ip helper-address command?

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    Correct answer: A. On the LAN interface that receives client broadcast messages

    The correct answer proves that the command must be on the interface receiving client broadcasts. The trap is placing the configuration in the pool or on the server-facing interface.

  145. Question 145 of 160Which of the following is a benefit of RFC 1918?

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    Correct answer: C. It allows internal hosts to use addresses that are not globally unique.

    The correct answer proves that RFC 1918 allows the use of non-unique private addresses. The distractor incorrectly claims it provides encryption or expands the public address space.

  146. Question 146 of 160Which LWAP mode captures 802.11 frames for analysis in Wireshark?

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    Correct answer: A. Sniffer

    The correct answer proves that Sniffer mode is for capturing raw frames. The trap is choosing a mode for security analysis, like Rogue Detector.

  147. Question 147 of 160Which REST API authentication method allows a client to access a resource on a server on behalf of the resource's owner?

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    Correct answer: D. OAuth 2.0

    The correct answer proves OAuth 2.0 is for delegated access control. The distractors are simple authentication methods that lack the delegation capability.

  148. Question 148 of 160A router learns several routes to 172.16.0.0/16 via different routing protocols. Which route(s) will it insert into its routing table?

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    Correct answer: D. EIGRP route, metric 5678

    The correct answer proves that administrative distance, not metric, determines the best path when multiple protocols advertise a route. The distractor with the lowest metric is a trap for confusing AD with protocol metric.

  149. Question 149 of 160Which of the following commands creates an SVI for inter-VLAN routing on an L3 switch?

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    Correct answer: C. interface vlan <vlan-id>

    This command proves the creation of a Switch Virtual Interface, the logical entity used for routing between VLANs. The distractor 'ip routing' only enables the global routing function on the switch but does not create the specific interface.

  150. Question 150 of 160Which characteristic of cloud computing means that customers should be able to quickly scale their cloud resources up or down as needed?

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    Correct answer: B. Rapid elasticity

    This proves the definition of rapid elasticity, a core cloud tenet for scalable resources. The distractor 'Resource pooling' describes the back-end model, not the customer-facing ability to scale.

  151. Question 151 of 160Which of the following IPv6 multicast addresses is limited to the local link and will not be routed between subnets? Correct answer

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    Correct answer: A. ff02::1

    The correct answer shows that ff02::1 is a link-local multicast address for all nodes on the same subnet. Distractors use other scopes like global (ff0e::1), site-local (ff05::1), and interface-local (ff01::1).

  152. Question 152 of 160Examine the following configurations. Which of the following statements are true? (select two)

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    Correct answer: G. G0/1 is an access port

    The correct answer proves that 'switchport mode access' configures an interface as an access port. The elimination cue is that access port commands override trunk commands, making 'G0/1 is an access port' true.

  153. Question 153 of 160Which Cisco WLC QoS profile is recommended for video traffic?

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    Correct answer: A. Gold

    The correct answer proves that the Gold profile is optimized for video traffic with moderate latency control. The trap distractors are lower-priority profiles that would not provide adequate quality for video.

  154. Question 154 of 160BPDU Filter has been enabled globally for all PortFast-enabled ports. What happens when one of the BPDU Filter-enabled ports receives a BPDU?

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    Correct answer: A. PortFast and BPDU Filter are disabled on the port

    The correct answer proves that the port reverts to normal STP behavior to prevent loops. The trap is that the port does not remain filtered or error-disabled.

  155. Question 155 of 160What is the facility of the following Syslog message? 000062: Jan 20 08:05:52: %LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface GigabitEthernet0/2, changed state to up

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    Correct answer: D. LINK

    The correct answer proves that the facility identifies the device subsystem that generated the log message. The trap is confusing the facility with the message level or description.

  156. Question 156 of 160Which command can be used to transfer a file from an external FTP server to the local device?

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    Correct answer: A. copy ftp: flash:

    This command proves the correct syntax for copying a file from a remote FTP server to a local flash storage device. The distractor 'copy flash: ftp:' reverses the source and destination, making it an upload command instead of a download.

  157. Question 157 of 160When configuring a hexadecimal WPA2 PSK in a Cisco WLC, how many characters must the PSK be?

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    Correct answer: D. 64 characters

    The correct answer proves that a hexadecimal WPA2 PSK must be 64 characters long to represent the full 256-bit key. Distractors confuse hex length with ASCII passphrase length.

  158. Question 158 of 160Examine the topology below. You must create one extended ACL that blocks HTTP traffic originating from the two LANs attached to R1 (10.1.2.0/24 and 10.1.3.0/24) destined for SRV1. On which interface and in which direction should you apply the ACL?

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    Correct answer: C. Outbound on R1 Eth1

    This answer proves that placing an ACL outbound on the closest router to the source is the most efficient method. The distractor 'Inbound on R2 Eth1' is a common mistake, as it would require the traffic to first cross the network to be filtered.

  159. Question 159 of 160You configure this static route: R1(config)# ipv6 route 2001::/16 g0/0 2001:db8:1234:5aff:f234::23fa. Which of the following statements are true? (select all correct answers)

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    Correct answer: B. It is a network route

    The correct answer demonstrates that a route with a prefix length of /16 is classified as a network route. Distractors are eliminated by applying the definitions of host, default, directly-connected, and fully-specified routes.

  160. Question 160 of 160Which of the following ACL entries permits reply traffic from the HTTP server 203.0.113.1 to all clients?

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    Correct answer: A. access-list 101 permit tcp 203.0.113.1 0.0.0.0 any eq www

    This proves that reply traffic from a server requires the server's IP as the source and its service port (eq www) in the source port field. The distractor with the source port as 'any' fails to match the required source port 80 on the reply.

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