Test your CCNA knowledge with 16 exam-style questions, clean answer reveals, and concise explanations. Topics include: What is the correct abbreviation of the IPv6 address 2000:ad08:0009:0900:1200:0000:0000:1000?. Follow @CertPunch and visit certpunch.com for more certification practice videos and study content.
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What you will practice
- What is the correct abbreviation of the IPv6 address 2000:ad08:0009:0900:1200:0000:0000:1000?
- Which of the following WPA3 features provides superior security over WPA2?
- Which of the following cloud service models provides the most control to the customer?
- What kind of static route specifies only the exit interface?
- R1's interfaces have the following IP addresses: G0/1 – 192.168.1.1/24 G0/2 – 192.168.2.1/24 Loopback1 – 10.1…
- Examine the network below. AP1 and AP2 are lightweight APs controlled by WLC1. FlexConnect is not used in the…
Answers and explanations
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Q1. What is the correct abbreviation of the IPv6 address 2000:ad08:0009:0900:1200:0000:0000:1000?
Answer: C. 2000:ad08:9:900:1200::1000
This question verifies the rules for abbreviating IPv6 addresses: removing leading zeros from each block and using '::' to represent the longest sequence of zeros.
Q2. Which of the following WPA3 features provides superior security over WPA2?
Answer: D. SAE
This answer correctly identifies SAE as the WPA3 feature that secures against brute-force attacks on the PSK, a security improvement over WPA2's PSK.
Q3. Which of the following cloud service models provides the most control to the customer?
Answer: A. IaaS
IaaS provides the most customer control, as it allows management of the OS and applications. PaaS and SaaS offer less control as abstraction layers increase.
Q4. What kind of static route specifies only the exit interface?
Answer: B. Directly connected
A directly connected static route specifies only an exit interface. A fully specified route includes both the next-hop IP and the exit interface.
Q5. R1's interfaces have the following IP addresses: G0/1 – 192.168.1.1/24 G0/2 – 192.168.2.1/24 Loopback1 – 10.10.10.1/32 Loopback2 – 10.10.10.2/32 You enable OSPF on R1. Which IP address will be selected as its OSPF RID?
Answer: D. 10.10.10.2
OSPF RID is the highest loopback IP address by default. The answer demonstrates the OSPF selection priority: loopback over physical interfaces.
Q6. Examine the network below. AP1 and AP2 are lightweight APs controlled by WLC1. FlexConnect is not used in the network. Hosts associated with AP1 and AP2 use SW1's SVI interfaces as their default gateway. What path will traffic from PC1 tak…
Answer: A. PC1 > AP1 > SW1 > WLC1 > SW1 > WLC1 > SW1 > AP2 > PC2
In a central forwarding model, traffic is tunneled between APs and WLC, physically passing through the switch. The trap is the direct logical path.
Q7. In Dynamic NAT, which command is used to define the traffic that should be translated?
Answer: C. R1(config)# access-list
An access-list identifies the specific traffic to be translated by matching the source IP addresses of packets that need NAT translation.
Q8. You can configure SW1's F0/5 interface with the following commands: SW1(config-if)# switchport access vlan 10 SW1(config-if)# switchport mode access Which command can you configure on the interface to allow it to also carry traffic in VLAN…
Answer: C. switchport voice vlan 20
The switchport voice vlan command allows a secondary, tagged VLAN to be carried on an access port without turning it into a trunk port.
Q9. A malicious user who intends to harm the security of an organization's systems is an example of what?
Answer: C. Threat
A malicious user is a threat, a potential danger to security. The distractors define vulnerability, a weakness, and exploit, a method to use that weakness.
Q10. What bit pattern is found at the beginning of the IPv6 header?
Answer: A. 0110
The Version field in the IPv6 header uses the binary pattern 0110, which is the decimal number 6. The distractors are incorrect version numbers.
Q11. Which of the following commands configures a router to be a stratum 8 NTP server?
Answer: D. ntp master
This answer confirms that the 'ntp master' command with no argument defaults to a stratum 8 server. The distractors involve incorrect client commands or potential variable stratum levels.
Q12. Your organization occasionally sends fake phishing emails to employees, luring employees to click the links inside. Employees who click on these links find a message telling them to be more cautious about phishing. Which element of a secur…
Answer: A. User awareness
This question demonstrates that user awareness is the security principle being applied. It is not training, as it focuses on awareness rather than structured instruction.
Q13. Which of the following statements about UDP is true?
Answer: A. UDP uses a checksum for error detection.
UDP uses a checksum for basic error detection. Option D is a distractor that confuses UDP with TCP, as UDP lacks sequencing and acknowledgment.
Q14. Which of the following DSCP markings indicates a low drop precedence?
Answer: B. AF31
The DSCP AF class uses the third digit for drop precedence, where a lower number means lower drop priority and higher survivability during congestion.
Q15. A PC and an IP Phone are connected to the network via SW1's G0/1 interface. You issue the following configurations on SW1 G0/1: SW1(config-if)# switchport mode access SW1(config-if)# switchport access vlan 10 SW1(config-if)# switchport voi…
Answer: E. Traffic sent to and from the IP Phone is tagged.
Voice VLAN traffic is tagged with VLAN ID, while data VLAN traffic is untagged. The trap confusingly states traffic is untagged, but the voice VLAN setting explicitly enables tagging.
Q16. Which of the following WLAN QoS settings is defined as Best Effort?
Answer: D. Silver
Silver is defined as Best Effort for standard data traffic. The distractors are higher-priority categories like Gold and Platinum.
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