Practice for the CCNA exam with 23 exam-style practice questions, instant answer reveals, and concise explanations of every correct answer. Topics include: What facilitates a Telnet connection between devices by entering the device name?. Follow @CertPunch and visit certpunch.com for more certification practice exams and study content.
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What you will practice
- What facilitates a Telnet connection between devices by entering the device name?
- Which Wireless LAN Controller port connects to a switch to pass normal access-point traffic?
- What does WPA3 provide in wireless networking?
- Which port type does a lightweight AP use to connect to the wired network when it is configured in local mode?
- Which function does the range of private IPv4 addresses perform?
- Which standard protocol is used to negotiate Power over Ethernet (PoE) between a switch and an access point?
Answers and explanations
Tap a question to expand the answer and the exam reasoning. Try to commit to your own pick first.
Q1. What facilitates a Telnet connection between devices by entering the device name?
Answer: B. DNS lookup
DNS lookup resolves a device hostname to an IP address, allowing a Telnet connection by name. Without DNS, you would need to know the exact IP address, and syslog or NTP serve different network functions.
Q2. Which Wireless LAN Controller port connects to a switch to pass normal access-point traffic?
Answer: D. data port
A Wireless LAN Controller uses its data port to connect to the switch and carry normal access point traffic. While the service port handles out-of-band management, the data port manages CAPWAP and client data traffic.
Q3. What does WPA3 provide in wireless networking?
Answer: B. safeguards against brute force attacks with SAE
WPA3 introduces Simultaneous Authentication of Equals to replace WPA2 pre-shared keys, safeguarding networks against offline brute-force attacks. Protected Management Frames are mandatory in WPA3, making the optional negotiation distractor incorrect.
Q4. Which port type does a lightweight AP use to connect to the wired network when it is configured in local mode?
Answer: D. trunk
In local mode, a lightweight access point uses a trunk port to support multiple VLANs for client traffic and management. While link aggregation is often supported for redundancy, the fundamental port type required to carry the various VLANs is a trunk.
Q5. Which function does the range of private IPv4 addresses perform?
Answer: A. allows multiple companies to each use the same addresses without conflicts
Private IPv4 address ranges allow multiple companies to reuse the same addresses internally without global routing conflicts. Remember that private addresses require Network Address Translation to access the internet, eliminating the distractors about direct connections.
Q6. Which standard protocol is used to negotiate Power over Ethernet (PoE) between a switch and an access point?
Answer: D. Link Layer Discovery Protocol (LLDP)
Link Layer Discovery Protocol Media Endpoint Discovery is the IEEE standard used to negotiate Power over Ethernet parameters. Cisco Discovery Protocol is a proprietary alternative, so the exam rule favoring open standards eliminates it here.
Q7. What is a recommended approach to avoid co-channel congestion while installing access points that use the 2.4 GHz frequency?
Answer: A. different nonoverlapping channels
Deploying access points on different nonoverlapping channels minimizes co-channel interference in the 2.4 GHz band. Overlapping channels or reusing the same channel degrades performance due to contention, which is why channel 1, 6, and 11 are typically leveraged.
Q8. Which IPv6 address range is suitable for anycast addresses for distributed services such as DHCP or DNS?
Answer: D. 2002:db84:3f30:ca84:be76:2/64
Anycast addresses are allocated from the global unicast address space, which starts with 2000::/3. Multicast uses FF00::/8, and link-local uses FE80::/10, so both are invalid for global anycast routing.
Q9. If a notice-level message is sent to a syslog server, which event has occurred?
Answer: C. A routing instance has flapped.
Notice-level syslog messages indicate significant but normal operational events, such as a routing instance flapping. A debug operation runs at debugging level, while device restarts typically trigger emergency or alert messages.
Q10. What is the same for both copper and fiber interfaces when using SFP modules?
Answer: C. They provide minimal interruption to services by being hot-swappable
Both copper and fiber Small Form-factor Pluggable modules are hot-swappable, allowing replacement without powering down the device. The other options are invalid because SFPs operate at gigabit speeds and are media-specific.
Q11. Which Rapid PVST+ feature should be configured on a switch port to immediately send traffic to a connected server as soon as it is active?
Answer: A. portfast
PortFast allows an access port to bypass listening and learning states, transitioning immediately to the forwarding state. UplinkFast is used for redundant uplink recovery on root ports, not for edge devices like servers.
Q12. An engineer is installing a new wireless printer with a static IP address on the Wi-Fi network. Which feature must be enabled and configured to prevent connection issues with the printer?
Answer: C. passive client
The passive client feature allows wireless controllers to learn the IP addresses of static clients. Controllers normally rely on DHCP snooping to map IP and MAC addresses, meaning static clients fail to communicate without this feature enabled.
Q13. What is a feature of TFTP?
Answer: A. offers anonymous user login ability
Trivial File Transfer Protocol provides a lightweight method for anonymous file transfers without requiring authentication. It relies on a single UDP connection, eliminating the secure TCP options that describe File Transfer Protocol.
Q14. What is the RFC 4627 default encoding for JSON text?
Answer: C. UTF-8
JavaScript Object Notation text must be encoded using Unicode, with UTF-8 established as the standard encoding. This ensures efficient data serialization and backward compatibility with ASCII, which is expected for modern programmability and API integration.
Q15. What must be considered for a locally switched FlexConnect AP if the VLANs that are used by the AP and client access are different?
Answer: C. The switch port mode must be set to trunk.
A locally switched FlexConnect AP requires a trunk port when management and client VLANs differ. The trunk allows multiple tagged VLANs to traverse the single physical link. Distractors fail because disabling 802.1Q or forcing LAG does not enable the necessary multiple VLAN tagging.
Q16. Which capability does TFTP provide?
Answer: A. loads configuration files on systems without data storage devices
Trivial File Transfer Protocol provides a lightweight method to transfer files, often loading configurations or images onto diskless systems using UDP port 69. The distractors mention encryption, authentication, and secure access, which TFTP simply does not provide.
Q17. What describes the functionality of southbound APIs?
Answer: A. They enable communication between the controller and the network device.
Southbound APIs enable communication between the software defined networking controller and the underlying network devices. Northbound APIs flow upward to applications, which quickly eliminates the option mentioning applications.
Q18. What is the difference between an IPv6 link-local address and a unique local address?
Answer: A. The scope of an IPv6 link-local address is limited to a directly attached interface, but an IPv6 unique local address is used throughout a company site or network.
An IPv6 link-local address is automatically configured and limited strictly to the local link, while a unique local address routes internally across an organization. The distractors can be eliminated because link-local traffic is never routed globally.
Q19. A network architect is considering whether to implement Cisco DNA Center to deploy devices on a new network. The organization is focused on reducing the time it currently takes to deploy devices in a traditional campus design. For which re…
Answer: A. Cisco DNA Center supports deployment with a single pane of glass.
Cisco DNA Center centralizes network management through a single pane of glass, streamlining device design and provisioning. The platform focuses strictly on Cisco devices, which eliminates the distractor claiming third-party zero-touch provisioning support.
Q20. What must be considered before deploying virtual machines?
Answer: A. resource limitations, such as the number of CPU cores and the amount of memory
Before deploying virtual machines, administrators must evaluate host resource capacity, including CPU cores and RAM. The remaining options focus on physical hardware peripherals or generalized data center placement, which are not the primary technical constraints for virtualization.
Q21. After installing a new Cisco ISE server, which task must the engineer perform on the Cisco WLC to connect wireless clients on a specific VLAN based on their credentials?
Answer: C. Enable the Allow AAA Override.
Enabling AAA Override allows the WLC to accept dynamic VLAN assignments from Cisco ISE based on user credentials. Without this feature enabled, the controller ignores authorization attributes returned by the RADIUS server, and clients are placed into their default interface VLAN.
Q22. What is the recommended switch load-balancing mode for Cisco WLCs?
Answer: D. source-destination MAC address
Source-destination MAC load balancing is recommended for WLCs because CAPWAP tunnels encapsulate traffic at Layer 2. Using IP-based hashing would incorrectly map all controller traffic to a single link since the packets share the same IP headers.
Q23. A network engineer must configure two new subnets using the address block 10.70.128.0/19 to meet these requirements: – The first subnet must support 24 hosts. – The second subnet must support 472 hosts. – Both subnets must use the longest…
Answer: E,F. interface vlan 1148 || ip address 10.70.148.1 255.255.254.0
The first usable IP of a valid subnet boundary must be assigned to the VLAN interface. Here, a /23 mask correctly supports the 472-host requirement, while a /27 mask supports the 24-host requirement. Other options fail due to incorrect network boundaries or violating the longest subnet mask rule.
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