Practice for the CCNA exam with 22 exam-style practice questions, instant answer reveals, and concise explanations of every correct answer. Topics include: Which type of information resides on a DHCP server?. Follow @CertPunch and visit certpunch.com for more certification practice exams and study content.
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What you will practice
- Which type of information resides on a DHCP server?
- Why would an administrator choose to implement an automated network management solution?
- A project objective is to minimize the association time to the different access points as mobile devices move…
- What is the definition of backdoor malware?
- What is the binary prefix for an IPv6 unique local address?
- Which EtherChannel mode must be configured when using LAG on a WLC?
Answers and explanations
Tap a question to expand the answer and the exam reasoning. Try to commit to your own pick first.
Q1. Which type of information resides on a DHCP server?
Answer: A. A. a list of the available IP addresses in a pool
A DHCP server maintains a pool of available IP addresses and leases them dynamically to clients. The other options describe DNS, RADIUS, or static tasks, which are unrelated to core DHCP functions.
Q2. Why would an administrator choose to implement an automated network management solution?
Answer: A. A. to reduce operational costs
Automated network management reduces operational expenses by minimizing manual configuration tasks, decreasing human error, and improving efficiency. Manual configuration traps are eliminated because automation aims to reduce effort.
Q3. A project objective is to minimize the association time to the different access points as mobile devices move around the office. The ideal solution must cover numerous devices and device types, including laptops, mobile phones, tablets, an…
Answer: D. D. 802.11k neighbor List Dual Band
The 802.11k standard provides neighbor reports that inform clients about nearby access points. This reduces scanning time and allows devices to roam more quickly across various device types.
Q4. What is the definition of backdoor malware?
Answer: A. A. malicious code that is installed onto a computer to allow access by an unauthorized user
Backdoor malware is malicious code that bypasses authentication to provide unauthorized system access. Trojans often deliver this malware, whereas droppers primarily download additional malicious payloads.
Q5. What is the binary prefix for an IPv6 unique local address?
Answer: A. A. 1111110
IPv6 unique local addresses use the FC00::/7 prefix, which means the first seven bits are 1111110. This specific binary pattern defines the ULA block for local network communications.
Q6. Which EtherChannel mode must be configured when using LAG on a WLC?
Answer: A. A. on
When configuring Link Aggregation on a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller, the connected switch port must use static mode. The controller does not support dynamic negotiation protocols like LACP or PAgP, requiring manual bundling.
Q7. Which Windows command is used instead of the route print command to display the contents of the IP routing table?
Answer: B. B. netstat -r
The netstat -r command displays the IP routing table on a Windows system and is functionally equivalent to route print. The -r parameter instructs the system to display routing information and active interfaces.
Q8. What is a benefit of VRRP?
Answer: A. A. It provides the default gateway redundancy on a LAN using two or more routers.
VRRP provides default gateway redundancy on a LAN by allowing multiple routers to share a single virtual IP address. The other options describe routing protocols, spanning tree, or load balancing, which serve entirely different networking functions.
Q9. An engineer observes high usage on the 2.4GHz channels and lower usage on the 5GHz channels. What must be configured to allow clients to preferentially use 5GHz access points?
Answer: A. A. Client Band Select
Client Band Select encourages dual-band clients to connect to the less congested 5-GHz radio by delaying 2.4-GHz probe responses. The other options manage roaming, tunneling, or physical layer technologies, not client steering.
Q10. What is the purpose of an SSID?
Answer: D. D. It identifies a WLAN.
The Service Set Identifier is the logical name that identifies a specific wireless LAN. It allows client devices to discover and connect to the correct network, differentiating it from security or individual access point identification.
Q11. What is a capability of FTP in network management operations?
Answer: B. B. uses separate control and data connections to move files between server and client
FTP uses two separate TCP connections: a control connection for commands and a data connection for transferring files. Unlike TFTP, FTP does not use UDP, and standard FTP does not inherently encrypt data.
Q12. A network engineer must back up 20 network router configurations globally within a customer environment. Which protocol allows the engineer to perform this function using the Cisco IOS MIB?
Answer: B. B. SNMP
The Simple Network Management Protocol uses Management Information Base objects to monitor and manage network devices. Cisco IOS MIBs can specifically trigger configuration copy operations, making it the correct choice for automated backups, unlike SMTP or CDP.
Q13. Which HTTP status code is returned after a successful REST API request?
Answer: A. A. 200
A two hundred OK status code indicates that a REST API request was successful. The exam expects you to distinguish standard HTTP response codes, where three zero one is a redirect, four zero four is not found, and five zero zero indicates a server error.
Q14. How do UTP and STP cables compare?
Answer: B. B. STP cables are shielded and protect against electromagnetic interference and UTP lacks the same protection against electromagnetic interference.
Shielded twisted pair cables include shielding that reduces electromagnetic interference and crosstalk. Unshielded twisted pair cables rely only on the twisting of the wire pairs to reduce interference and do not provide the same level of physical protection.
Q15. An engineer needs to configure an access point to forward all client traffic through a wireless controller. Which mode must be enabled to accomplish this task?
Answer: A. A. local
In local mode, a lightweight access point forwards all client traffic through the wireless LAN controller using CAPWAP tunnels. Both control and data traffic are encapsulated and sent to the controller for centralized processing.
Q16. In a cloud-computing environment, what is rapid elasticity?
Answer: B. B. automatic adjustment of capacity based on need
Rapid elasticity refers to the cloud capability to automatically scale resources up or down based on current demand. Capacity can be provisioned and released quickly to match workload requirements, distinguishing it from basic resource pooling.
Q17. A client experiences slow throughput from a server that is directly connected to the core switch in a data center. A network engineer finds minimal latency on connections to the server, but data transfers are unreliable, and the output of…
Answer: A. A. a physical cable fault
A high Frame Check Sequence error count indicates corrupted frames at Layer 2. These errors are most commonly caused by physical layer issues such as faulty cabling or damaged connectors, which force retransmissions and reduce actual throughput.
Q18. A packet is destined for 10.10.1.22. Which static route does the router choose to forward the packet?
Answer: B. B. ip route 10.10.1.20 255.255.255.252 10.10.255.1
Routers select the longest prefix match when multiple routes exist. The destination IP falls within the ten dot ten dot one dot twenty slash thirty subnet, making this slash thirty route the most specific match and the chosen path for forwarding.
Q19. Which mode must be set for APs to communicate to a Wireless LAN Controller using the Control and Provisioning of Wireless Access Points (CAPWAP) protocol?
Answer: C. C. lightweight
Lightweight mode allows an access point to operate under the management of a wireless LAN controller. Autonomous mode is the trap here because those access points operate independently and do not use CAPWAP for controller communication.
Q20. How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they guarantee packet delivery?
Answer: C. C. TCP uses checksum, acknowledgements, and retransmissions, and UDP uses checksums only
Transmission Control Protocol provides reliable delivery using acknowledgments and retransmissions to recover lost segments. User Datagram Protocol is connectionless and relies strictly on basic checksums for error detection without guaranteeing delivery.
Q21. What is the benefit of using FHRP?
Answer: C. C. higher degree of availability
First Hop Redundancy Protocols provide high availability for the default gateway by allowing a standby device to instantly take over if the primary fails. Load balancing is a trap because a single virtual IP is always presented to hosts.
Q22. What is the functionality of the Cisco DNA Center?
Answer: D. D. software-defined controller for automation of devices and services
Cisco DNA Center acts as a software defined controller designed to automate policy, provisioning, and management for enterprise devices. It is not a basic console server or scheduler, which eliminates the distracting operational options.
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