CCNA 2026 Practice Test – 906 Free Exam Questions with Answers

CCNA 2026

906 questions · instant answer feedback · concise explanations · free

  1. Question 1 of 906What is a characteristic of spine-and-leaf architecture?

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    Correct answer: D. Each device is separated by the same number of hops.

    In a spine-and-leaf topology, every leaf switch connects to every spine switch, ensuring consistent latency because any two devices are separated by the same number of hops. Options mentioning Spanning Tree Protocol or variable latency act as traps, as modern designs avoid such inefficiencies.

  2. Question 2 of 906Which virtual MAC address is used by VRRP group 1?

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    Correct answer: D. 0000.5E00.0101

    Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol version three uses a dedicated virtual MAC address format of zero zero zero zero dot five E zero zero dot zero one X X. The X X represents the group number in hexadecimal, making group one end in zero one.

  3. Question 3 of 906A Cisco engineer at a new branch office is configuring a wireless network with access points that connect to a controller that is based at corporate headquarters. Wireless client traffic must terminate at the branch office and access-point survivability is required in the event of a WAN outage. Which access point mode must be selected?

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    Correct answer: B. FlexConnect with local switching enabled

    FlexConnect with local switching enabled allows wireless client traffic to terminate locally at the branch office instead of traversing a WAN link. This mode also provides access point survivability, allowing the device to operate independently if the controller is unreachable.

  4. Question 4 of 906Which mechanism allows WPA3 to provide a higher degree of security than its predecessors?

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    Correct answer: B. SAE password-based key exchange

    WPA three replaces the vulnerable four-way handshake with Simultaneous Authentication of Equals, also known as SAE. This password-based key exchange provides robust protection against offline dictionary attacks, which is a major security improvement over previous versions.

  5. Question 5 of 906Which device segregates a network into separate zones that have their own security policies?

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    Correct answer: D. firewall

    A firewall segregates a network into separate security zones, such as inside, outside, or DMZ, and strictly controls traffic between them. Switches and access points provide connectivity, while an intrusion prevention system strictly monitors for attacks.

  6. Question 6 of 906Where does a switch maintain DHCP snooping information?

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    Correct answer: D. In the binding database

    A switch maintains DHCP snooping information in the binding database. This database tracks IP-to-MAC address bindings, VLAN, and port, and it is used to validate DHCP messages and enforce security features like Dynamic ARP Inspection.

  7. Question 7 of 906Which component controls and distributes physical resources for each virtual machine?

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    Correct answer: A. hypervisor

    The hypervisor abstracts and manages the underlying physical hardware resources such as CPU, memory, and storage for virtual machines. An operating system runs applications, while the CPU and enclosure are physical hardware components.

  8. Question 8 of 906When is the PUT method used within HTTP?

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    Correct answer: A. to create or fully replace a resource at a specified URI

    The PUT method creates or completely replaces a resource at a specific URI. It is idempotent, meaning repeated identical requests yield the same result. Displaying a website or performing read-only operations relies on methods like GET.

  9. Question 9 of 906Using direct-sequence spread spectrum, which three 2.4-GHz channels are non-overlapping?

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    Correct answer: C. 1, 6, 11

    Channels 1, 6, and 11 are the three non-overlapping channels in the 2.4-GHz band using DSSS. These channels are spaced far enough apart to prevent frequency overlap, unlike the other listed options.

  10. Question 10 of 906Which network action occurs within the data plane?

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    Correct answer: D. compare the destination IP address to the IP routing table

    The data plane handles actual packet forwarding by comparing the destination IP to the routing table. Control plane functions like OSPF routing and NETCONF configuration changes build the tables used for forwarding.

  11. Question 11 of 906What is the function of the control plane?

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    Correct answer: A. It exchanges routing table information.

    The control plane builds and maintains the routing table by exchanging network routing information using protocols like OSPF or BGP. Forwarding traffic and looking up egress interfaces are data plane functions.

  12. Question 12 of 906What is the benefit of configuring PortFast on an interface?

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    Correct answer: B. After the cable is connected, the interface is available faster to send and receive user data.

    PortFast allows an access port to bypass the listening and learning states of STP, transitioning immediately to the forwarding state. This significantly reduces the time before the interface can send and receive user traffic, such as during DHCP negotiation.

  13. Question 13 of 906Which QoS forwarding per-hop behavior changes a specific value in a packet header to set the class of service for the packet?

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    Correct answer: D. marking

    Marking modifies specific fields in the packet header to indicate the class of service. Classification identifies the traffic, but only marking actually changes the packet header to define the per-hop behavior for downstream devices.

  14. Question 14 of 906Which IPv6 address block forwards packets to a multicast address rather than a unicast address?

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    Correct answer: D. FF00::/12

    IPv6 multicast traffic uses the FF00::/12 address block to send packets to a group of interfaces. Global unicast uses 2000::/3, unique local uses FC00::/7, and link-local uses FE80::/10.

  15. Question 15 of 906What is the operating mode and role of a backup port on a shared LAN segment in Rapid PVST+?

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    Correct answer: B. discarding state and provides a backup path for a designated port on the same LAN segment

    A backup port in Rapid PVST+ provides a backup path for a designated port on the same LAN segment. It remains in the discarding state until the designated port fails, while an alternate port backs up the root port.

  16. Question 16 of 906What does a switch search for in the CAM table when forwarding a frame?

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    Correct answer: D. destination MAC address

    When forwarding a frame, a switch examines the destination MAC address and searches the CAM table for a matching entry. The source MAC address is only used during the MAC learning process, not the forwarding lookup.

  17. Question 17 of 906Which protocol enables an application on a client to communicate with a server over an IP network?

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    Correct answer: D. HTTP

    Application layer protocols like HTTP enable client applications to communicate with server applications. Lower layer protocols like TCP and IP provide reliable transport and logical addressing underneath.

  18. Question 18 of 906Which keyword in a NAT configuration enables the use of one outside IP address for multiple inside hosts?

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    Correct answer: D. overload

    The overload keyword enables Port Address Translation, allowing multiple inside hosts to share one public IP address. It differentiates sessions by assigning unique Layer 4 source port numbers to each connection.

  19. Question 19 of 906Which connection type is used when an engineer connects to an AP without a configured IP address or dial-up number to manage the device?

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    Correct answer: D. console

    A console connection provides direct, out-of-band management access without needing an IP address. The mention of a missing dial-up number eliminates the AUX port, leaving the console port as the only option for initial configuration.

  20. Question 20 of 906The clients and DHCP server reside on different subnets. Which command must be used to forward requests and replies between clients on the 10.10.0.1/24 subnet and the DHCP server at 192.168.10.1?

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    Correct answer: D. ip helper-address 192.168.10.1

    The IP helper address command is configured on a router interface to forward UDP broadcasts, including DHCP requests, to a server on a different subnet. Static routes and default gateways do not forward local broadcasts.

  21. Question 21 of 906Which IPv4 address block is reserved for private use and commonly used inside enterprises?

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    Correct answer: B. 10.0.0.0/8

    The 10.0.0.0/8 block is an RFC 1918 private address range used for internal enterprise networks. The 100.64.0.0/10 block is for carrier grade NAT, and 192.0.2.0/24 is a documentation block.

  22. Question 22 of 906How does authentication differ from authorization?

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    Correct answer: B. Authentication verifies the identity of a person accessing a network, and authorization determines what resource a user can access.

    Authentication verifies the identity of a user or device, while authorization determines what resources that validated entity is allowed to access. Be careful not to confuse authorization with accounting, which tracks user activity.

  23. Question 23 of 906To improve corporate security, an organization is planning to implement badge authentication to limit access to the data center. Which element of a security program is being deployed?

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    Correct answer: C. physical access control

    Implementing badge authentication to restrict building entry is a form of physical access control. User awareness and training are administrative controls, whereas vulnerability verification is a network scanning process.

  24. Question 24 of 906Which command can you enter to determine the addresses that have been assigned on a DHCP server?

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    Correct answer: C. show ip dhcp binding

    The show IP DHCP binding command displays the active DHCP bindings, including assigned IP addresses, client MAC addresses, and lease expirations. Use the pool command to view configured ranges rather than active leases.

  25. Question 25 of 906Which command can you enter to allow Telnet to be supported in addition to SSH?

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    Correct answer: A. transport input telnet ssh

    Under VTY line configuration mode, the transport input telnet ssh command explicitly permits both protocols for remote management. If you only specify Telnet, the router will drop SSH sessions, violating the requirement.

  26. Question 26 of 906Which port-security violation mode drops traffic from unknown MAC addresses and forwards an SNMP trap?

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    Correct answer: C. restrict

    Port security restrict mode drops unauthorized traffic while generating log messages and SNMP traps. Protect mode drops traffic silently without sending traps, and shutdown mode immediately disables the interface.

  27. Question 27 of 906When a WPA2-PSK WLAN is configured in the Wireless LAN Controller, what is the minimum number of characters required in ASCII format?

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    Correct answer: B. 8

    Wi-Fi Protected Access version two requires a pre-shared key of at least eight ASCII characters. Anything shorter will be rejected by the wireless controller configuration, establishing the minimum secure baseline.

  28. Question 28 of 906What is the root port in STP?

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    Correct answer: D. It is the port on a switch with the lowest cost to reach the root bridge.

    In Spanning Tree Protocol, the root port is the interface on a non-root switch with the lowest cumulative path cost to the root bridge. Options mentioning the highest priority or ports on the root bridge itself describe designated ports instead.

  29. Question 29 of 906Which feature or protocol is required for an IP SLA to measure UDP jitter?

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    Correct answer: D. IP SLA responder

    Measuring UDP jitter requires an IP SLA responder enabled on the destination device to timestamp packets and return them. Protocols like Cisco Discovery Protocol and LLDP are for neighbor discovery, not active network monitoring.

  30. Question 30 of 906In which situation is private IPv4 addressing appropriate for a new subnet on the network of an organization?

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    Correct answer: C. There is limited unique address space, and traffic on the new subnet will stay local within the organization.

    Private IPv4 addressing is appropriate when unique public address space is limited and traffic remains internal to the organization. Options involving internet routing or external transit typically require unique public addresses or careful NAT traversal to function correctly.

  31. Question 31 of 906What is the function of the controller in a software-defined network?

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    Correct answer: C. determining network paths and programming forwarding behavior

    An SDN controller centralizes the control plane by determining network paths and programming forwarding behaviors on devices. It does not physically forward packets, as the actual data plane hardware handles the packet movement across the network.

  32. Question 32 of 906What does the implementation of a first-hop redundancy protocol protect against on a network?

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    Correct answer: A. default gateway failure

    First Hop Redundancy Protocols protect against default gateway failures by allowing multiple routers to share a virtual IP address. If the active router fails, a standby router takes over, preventing Layer 3 connectivity loss without requiring host reconfiguration.

  33. Question 33 of 906Which STP states are bypassed when PortFast is enabled on a switch port?

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    Correct answer: C. listening and learning

    Enabling PortFast bypasses the listening and learning states, causing the port to transition immediately to forwarding. This feature is intended for access ports connected to end hosts to prevent DHCP timeout issues during the spanning tree convergence process.

  34. Question 34 of 906Why is TCP desired over UDP for applications that require extensive error checking, such as HTTPS?

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    Correct answer: D. UDP operates without acknowledgments, while TCP uses acknowledgments to ensure reliable delivery

    TCP uses acknowledgments, sequencing, and retransmissions to ensure reliable, ordered data delivery for applications requiring extensive error checking. UDP is a connectionless protocol that operates without these reliability mechanisms, dropping packets under heavy load.

  35. Question 35 of 906Which API is used in controller-based architectures to interact with edge devices?

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    Correct answer: A. southbound

    Southbound APIs are used to communicate between the SDN controller and the network infrastructure devices in the data plane. Northbound APIs are used for the controller to communicate with upper-level applications and management programs instead.

  36. Question 36 of 906Which port type does a lightweight AP use to connect to the wired network when configured in FlexConnect mode with local switching and VLAN tagging?

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    Correct answer: A. trunk

    FlexConnect local switching with VLAN tagging requires an 802.1Q trunk port on the switch to carry multiple tagged VLANs. The access, LAG, and EtherChannel options are incorrect because a standard access port only carries a single untagged VLAN.

  37. Question 37 of 906Which configuration management mechanism uses TCP port 22 by default when communicating with managed nodes?

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    Correct answer: A. Ansible

    Ansible uses SSH, which operates over TCP port 22 by default, to communicate with managed nodes. It is agentless, making port 22 the standard transport for its operations. Puppet and Chef use agents that typically communicate over ports 8140 and 443.

  38. Question 38 of 906By default, which virtual MAC address does HSRP group 14 use?

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    Correct answer: D. 00:00:0c:07:ac:0e

    HSRP version 1 uses a virtual MAC address format of 0000.0c07.acXX, where XX represents the group number in hexadecimal. Group 14 in decimal converts to 0e in hexadecimal. The distractors either use the wrong OUI or fail to convert the group number properly.

  39. Question 39 of 906How does Rapid PVST+ create a fast loop-free network topology?

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    Correct answer: D. It generates one spanning-tree instance for each VLAN.

    Rapid PVST+ generates one spanning-tree instance for each VLAN. This allows faster convergence and supports load balancing across multiple links while maintaining a loop-free Layer 2 topology. The other options are incorrect because they either violate loop prevention or describe MST features.

  40. Question 40 of 906An engineer requires a switch interface to actively attempt to establish a trunk link with a neighbor switch. What command must be configured?

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    Correct answer: B. switchport mode dynamic desirable

    The switchport mode dynamic desirable command enables Dynamic Trunking Protocol and actively attempts to negotiate trunk formation with the neighboring switch. The dynamic auto mode is a trap because it only passively waits for the neighbor to initiate the negotiation.

  41. Question 41 of 906Under which condition is TCP preferred over UDP?

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    Correct answer: C. TCP is used when data reliability is critical, and UDP is used when missing packets are acceptable.

    TCP is preferred when data reliability is critical, using acknowledgments and retransmissions to ensure guaranteed delivery. UDP is used when occasional packet loss is acceptable, such as in voice or video streaming. The distractors incorrectly associate low latency or dropped data with TCP.

  42. Question 42 of 906What is a characteristic of frame switching?

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    Correct answer: C. stores and forwards frames in a buffer and uses error checking

    Store-and-forward switching receives the entire frame, stores it in a buffer, performs error checking like verifying the Frame Check Sequence, and then forwards it if valid. The trap options misrepresent switching behavior, as switches dynamically learn MACs and never rewrite them.

  43. Question 43 of 906Which set of actions satisfy the requirement for multifactor authentication?

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    Correct answer: C. The user enters a user name and password, and then clicks a notification in an authentication app on a mobile device.

    Multifactor authentication requires combining two different factors, such as something you know and something you have. Using a password plus a mobile authenticator app notification fits this rule, while merely re-entering credentials does not.

  44. Question 44 of 906You are configuring your edge router's interface with a public IP address for Internet connectivity. The router needs to obtain the IP address from the service provider dynamically. Which command is needed on interface FastEthernet 0/0 to accomplish this?

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    Correct answer: D. ip address dhcp

    The ip address dhcp command allows a router interface to obtain an IP address dynamically from a service provider. The other options configure static routing or default gateways, which do not dynamically acquire an IP address.

  45. Question 45 of 906In software-defined architecture, which plane handles switching for traffic through a Cisco router?

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    Correct answer: B. data

    The data plane, also known as the forwarding plane, handles the actual switching and forwarding of traffic through a network device. The control plane builds the routing tables, but the data plane executes the forwarding decisions.

  46. Question 46 of 906What is the difference between RADIUS and TACACS+?

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    Correct answer: B. TACACS+ separates authentication, authorization, and accounting, while RADIUS combines authentication and authorization.

    TACACS plus separates authentication, authorization, and accounting into independent processes for granular control. RADIUS combines authentication and authorization, and it only encrypts the password, unlike TACACS plus which encrypts the entire payload.

  47. Question 47 of 906How does Chef configuration management enforce a required device configuration?

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    Correct answer: B. The installed agent on the device connects to the Chef Infra Server and pulls its required configuration from the cookbook.

    Chef uses a pull-based model where an installed agent on the device connects to the central server to retrieve its configuration. This is a key distinction from push-based automation tools, as the client initiates the configuration request.

  48. Question 48 of 906Which protocol is used for secure remote CLI access?

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    Correct answer: D. SSH

    Secure Shell provides encrypted remote command-line access to network devices. Telnet sends traffic in cleartext, and HTTP or HTTPS are used for web-based graphical interfaces, so they can be eliminated.

  49. Question 49 of 906Which protocol prompts the Wireless LAN Controller to generate its own local web administration SSL certificate for GUI access?

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    Correct answer: B. HTTPS

    Enabling HTTPS prompts a Wireless LAN Controller to generate a local self-signed SSL certificate for secure graphical access. HTTP lacks encryption, while RADIUS and TACACS+ handle authentication rather than web certificates.

  50. Question 50 of 906When a floating static route is configured, which action ensures that the backup route is used when the primary route fails?

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    Correct answer: D. The floating static route must have a higher administrative distance than the primary route so it is used as a backup

    A floating static route is assigned a higher administrative distance than the primary route so it stays inactive until the primary fails. This ensures the backup path only installs when the preferred path disappears.

  51. Question 51 of 906Which IPv6 interface configuration creates a Unique Local Address that is routable within the organization but not on the public Internet?

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    Correct answer: B. interface vlan 2000 ipv6 address fd00::1234:2343/64

    IPv6 Unique Local Addresses use the FD00::/8 prefix for locally assigned addresses and are not routable on the public Internet. The FE80::/10 range is for link-local communication, while FF00::/8 designates multicast traffic.

  52. Question 52 of 906Which Spanning Tree feature allows an access port connected to an end host to move immediately to the forwarding state?

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    Correct answer: B. PortFast

    PortFast allows an access port to bypass the listening and learning states and transition directly to forwarding. The other features are loop prevention mechanisms. BPDU Guard, Root Guard, and Loop Guard restrict or block ports rather than speeding up their transition.

  53. Question 53 of 906Which protocol is used to securely access a Cisco device for remote management?

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    Correct answer: B. SSH

    Secure Shell encrypts the management session, protecting credentials and command output. It is the preferred secure remote access method for network devices. Telnet and TFTP send data in cleartext, exposing sensitive information to interception.

  54. Question 54 of 906A DHCP pool named NOCC has already been created and configured with the network 192.168.20.0/24. The pool must use the next-to-last usable IP address as the default gateway for DHCP clients. Which command should be configured next?

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    Correct answer: C. default-router 192.168.20.253

    In a slash twenty-four network, the last usable address is two fifty-four, making the next-to-last usable address two fifty-three. The default-router command configures the gateway distributed to DHCP clients. The ip default-gateway command is only used on the local device.

  55. Question 55 of 906What is the purpose of the ip address dhcp command?

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    Correct answer: B. to configure an interface as a DHCP client

    The IP address DHCP command is configured under an interface and instructs that interface to obtain its IP address dynamically from a DHCP server. Helper and relay commands are incorrect because they forward client requests rather than requesting an address for the router itself.

  56. Question 56 of 906What is the primary effect of the spanning-tree portfast command?

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    Correct answer: B. It immediately puts the port into the forwarding state when the link comes up.

    The spanning-tree portfast command causes an access port to transition immediately to the forwarding state when the link becomes active, bypassing the listening and learning states. This affects only the local port and does not speed up spanning-tree recalculations across the network.

  57. Question 57 of 906Which access layer threat-mitigation technique provides security based on identity?

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    Correct answer: C. 802.1x

    IEEE 802.1X provides port-based network access control and authenticates users or devices before granting network access. The other options are incorrect because they mitigate Layer 2 spoofing or VLAN hopping rather than enforcing identity-based security.

  58. Question 58 of 906On Windows workstations configured for automatic IP addressing, which protocol provides the default gateway information?

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    Correct answer: B. DHCP

    Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol provides IP configuration information to Windows workstations, including the IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS server addresses. The other options are incorrect because they handle routing, monitoring, or name resolution rather than dynamic address assignment.

  59. Question 59 of 906What is a characteristic of RSA?

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    Correct answer: B. It is an asymmetric encryption algorithm.

    RSA is an asymmetric encryption algorithm that uses a pair of keys, allowing secure communication without sharing a secret key in advance. The other options are incorrect because they describe symmetric encryption, which requires both sides to share an identical secret key.

  60. Question 60 of 906Which SDN plane is responsible for forwarding user traffic through the network?

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    Correct answer: C. Data plane

    The data plane is responsible for actually forwarding user traffic based on MAC and IP routing tables. Remember that the control plane makes the decisions, but the data plane performs the actual work of moving the packets.

  61. Question 61 of 906What is a characteristic of a Layer 2 switch?

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    Correct answer: D. makes forwarding decisions based on MAC addresses

    A Layer 2 switch makes forwarding decisions based on destination MAC addresses. Each switch port represents a separate collision domain, and communication between different VLANs requires routing, disproving the single broadcast domain distractor.

  62. Question 62 of 906Which QoS queuing method discards or marks packets that exceed the desired bit rate of traffic flow?

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    Correct answer: B. policing

    Policing enforces a configured traffic rate by dropping or marking packets that exceed the defined bit rate. Shaping delays excess traffic using queues, while CBWFQ and LLQ manage active queue scheduling.

  63. Question 63 of 906A DHCP pool has been created with the name CONTROL. The pool uses the next to last usable IP address as the default gateway for the DHCP clients. The server is located at 172.16.32.15. What is the next step in the process for clients on the 192.168.52.0/24 subnet to reach the DHCP server?

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    Correct answer: A. ip helper-address 172.16.32.15

    A router interface requires the IP helper address command to forward DHCP broadcast requests to a server on a different subnet. Configuring a default gateway or forward protocol does not directly relay DHCP DISCOVER messages across broadcast domains.

  64. Question 64 of 906How does MAC learning function on a switch?

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    Correct answer: A. associates the MAC address with the port on which it is received

    MAC learning occurs when a switch examines the source MAC address of an incoming frame and associates it with the ingress port. Switches do not rewrite MAC addresses during learning, nor do they use ARP requests to populate the CAM table.

  65. Question 65 of 906A port security violation has occurred on a switch port due to the maximum MAC address count being exceeded. Which command must be configured to increment the security-violation count and forward an SNMP trap?

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    Correct answer: C. switchport port-security violation restrict

    The restrict violation mode drops unauthorized traffic while incrementing the violation counter and sending SNMP traps. Protect mode drops frames silently without incrementing the counter, while shutdown mode immediately error disables the interface.

  66. Question 66 of 906Which interface IP address is used as the source of CAPWAP packets between a Cisco WLC and an access point?

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    Correct answer: C. management interface

    The management interface on a Cisco wireless LAN controller is the default source IP address for CAPWAP packets exchanged with access points. The other options are either not valid WLC interfaces or do not handle CAPWAP tunnel termination.

  67. Question 67 of 906Which command should you enter to verify the priority of a router in an HSRP group?

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    Correct answer: D. show standby

    The show standby command displays HSRP group details, including the configured priority, active state, and virtual IP address. Show sessions displays management connections, and show interfaces does not provide first hop redundancy protocol states.

  68. Question 68 of 906What does traffic shaping do?

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    Correct answer: A. It queues excess traffic

    Traffic shaping regulates outbound bandwidth by buffering excess packets in a queue to smooth out traffic bursts. This is different from marking or organizing packets, and it avoids dropping packets like policing does.

  69. Question 69 of 906Where does the configuration reside when a helper address is configured to support DHCP?

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    Correct answer: B. on the router closest to the client

    The IP helper address must be configured on the router interface connected to the client to forward local broadcast requests. The router then forwards these packets as unicast to the remote server.

  70. Question 70 of 906Which state does the switch port move to when PortFast is enabled?

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    Correct answer: D. forwarding

    Enabling PortFast causes an access port to bypass the listening and learning states and transition immediately to forwarding. This prevents initial delay issues for end devices requesting addresses.

  71. Question 71 of 906A corporate office uses four floors in a building. Floor 1 has 24 users. Floor 2 has 29 users. Floor 3 has 28 users. Floor 4 has 22 users. Which subnet summarizes and gives the most efficient distribution of IP addresses for the router configuration?

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    Correct answer: C. 192.168.0.0/25 as summary and 192.168.0.0/27 for each floor

    A slash twenty-seven subnet provides thirty usable addresses, which supports the largest floor without waste. Four of these subnets combine efficiently into a single slash twenty-five summary route.

  72. Question 72 of 906Which IPv6 address block sends packets to a group address rather than a single address?

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    Correct answer: D. FF00::/8

    FF00::/8 defines IPv6 multicast addresses, which deliver packets to a group of interfaces that have joined the multicast group. The other options represent global unicast, unique local, and link-local addresses, which are used for standard one-to-one communication.

  73. Question 73 of 906A network administrator is setting up a new IPv6 network using the 64-bit address 2001:0EB8:00C1:2200:0001:0000:0000:0331/64. To simplify the configuration, the administrator has decided to compress the address. Which IP address must the administrator configure?

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    Correct answer: D. ipv6 address 2001:EB8:C1:2200:1::331/64

    IPv6 address compression removes leading zeros within each 16-bit hextet. You can also replace one contiguous block of zeroes with a double colon to get the shortest valid representation.

  74. Question 74 of 906An engineer is configuring data and voice services to pass through the same port. The designated switch interface fastethernet0/1 must transmit packets using the same priority for data when they are received from the access port of the IP phone. Which configuration must be used?

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    Correct answer: D. switchport priority extend trust

    The switchport priority extend trust command instructs the switch to trust the CoS value of traffic received from the access port of the IP phone. Other options rewrite the priority to a fixed value or apply to voice VLAN tagging.

  75. Question 75 of 906Which interface is used for out-of-band management on a WLC?

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    Correct answer: D. service port

    The service port is a dedicated out-of-band management interface on a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller. It provides a separate path for administrative tasks independent of production traffic, whereas the management interface handles in-band communication.

  76. Question 76 of 906Which interface or port on the WLC is the default for in-band device administration and communications between the controller and access points?

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    Correct answer: B. management interface

    The management interface is the default in-band interface used for device administration and CAPWAP control traffic between the controller and access points. The service port is reserved for out-of-band management, making it incorrect here.

  77. Question 77 of 906Which type of network attack overwhelms the target server by sending multiple packets to a port until the half-open TCP resources of the target are exhausted?

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    Correct answer: A. SYN flood

    A SYN flood attack exploits the TCP three-way handshake by sending SYN requests without completing the connection. The term half-open TCP resources is the key exam cue that eliminates reflection and amplification attacks.

  78. Question 78 of 906How does QoS optimize voice traffic?

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    Correct answer: B. by reducing packet loss

    Quality of service optimizes voice traffic by prioritizing packets to reduce packet loss, latency, and jitter. While it does differentiate traffic types, the direct optimization goal for voice is minimizing dropped packets.

  79. Question 79 of 906What is a function of a Next-Generation IPS?

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    Correct answer: A. correlates user activity with network events

    A Next Generation Intrusion Prevention System provides contextual awareness by correlating network events with user identity. Options involving MAC forwarding or RADIUS enforcement describe switches or authentication servers, not IPS features.

  80. Question 80 of 906Which of the following is a classic distance vector routing protocol?

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    Correct answer: E. RIP

    Routing Information Protocol, or RIP, is a classic distance vector protocol. EIGRP is often called an advanced distance vector protocol, while OSPF and IS-IS are link-state protocols, eliminating those choices.

  81. Question 81 of 906Which statement identifies the functionality of virtual machines?

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    Correct answer: B. The hypervisor can virtualize physical components including CPU, memory, and storage

    A hypervisor provides virtualization by abstracting physical hardware components including CPU, memory, and storage. A single hypervisor supports multiple virtual machines, eliminating the option claiming it supports only one virtual machine.

  82. Question 82 of 906An office has 8 floors with approximately 30-40 users per floor. One subnet must be used. Which command must be configured on the router Switched Virtual Interface to use address space efficiently?

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    Correct answer: B. ip address 192.168.0.1 255.255.254.0

    A 23-bit subnet mask provides 510 usable host addresses, efficiently covering the roughly 320 users while avoiding excessive waste. Because this is configured on a Switched Virtual Interface, it must use a valid host IP address rather than the network identifier.

  83. Question 83 of 906The address block 192.168.32.0/24 must be subnetted into smaller networks. The engineer must meet these requirements: – Create 8 new subnets. – Each subnet must accommodate 30 hosts. – VLAN 10 must use the last usable IP address in the first new subnet. – A routed physical Layer 3 interface is used.Which configuration should be applied to the interface?

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    Correct answer: C. ip address 192.168.32.30 255.255.255.224

    Borrowing three bits creates a 27-bit mask, yielding exactly eight subnets with thirty usable hosts each. The first subnet ranges from zero to thirty-one, making thirty the last valid assignable host address for that interface.

  84. Question 84 of 906Which standard is required when more than one distribution system port and only one IP address are configured for a Cisco WLC?

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    Correct answer: A. 802.3ad

    The 802.3ad standard defines Link Aggregation, allowing multiple physical interfaces to bundle into one logical interface. When a wireless LAN controller uses multiple ports with a single IP address, LAG must be enabled so they act as one logical path.

  85. Question 85 of 906The service password-encryption command is entered on a router. What is the effect of this configuration?

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    Correct answer: A. restricts unauthorized users from viewing clear-text passwords in the running configuration

    The service password-encryption command encrypts plaintext passwords, such as line passwords, within the running configuration to restrict casual viewing. The encryption uses a weak Type 7 algorithm, but it prevents unauthorized users from easily reading stored credentials.

  86. Question 86 of 906What is the purpose of configuring different levels of syslog for different devices on the network?

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    Correct answer: A. to set the severity of syslog messages from each device

    Configuring different syslog levels on network devices allows administrators to set the severity of messages each device generates and sends. This helps prioritize alerts and manage monitoring effectively. The other options describe unrelated syslog features like rate-limiting or message identification.

  87. Question 87 of 906What is an appropriate use for private IPv4 addressing?

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    Correct answer: D. on hosts that communicate only with other internal hosts

    Private IPv4 addressing is designed for internal hosts that communicate only with other internal hosts. The public-facing and external streaming options fail because RFC 1918 addresses are not routable across the Internet.

  88. Question 88 of 906Which command can be used to view system log messages related to EIGRP for IPv6 troubleshooting?

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    Correct answer: D. show logging

    The show logging command displays buffered system log messages, which frequently include routing protocol events and errors. The other choices only display current protocol states, such as neighbor adjacencies, rather than historical system logs.

  89. Question 89 of 906What is the difference between IPv6 unicast and anycast addressing?

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    Correct answer: A. An individual IPv6 unicast address is supported on a single interface on one node, but an IPv6 anycast address is assigned to a group of interfaces on multiple nodes.

    An IPv6 unicast address uniquely identifies a single interface on one node, whereas an anycast address is assigned to multiple interfaces, typically on different nodes. The routing protocol directs traffic to the nearest node, making it distinct from one-to-one unicast delivery.

  90. Question 90 of 906A network administrator must enable DHCP services between two sites. What must be configured for the router to pass DHCPDISCOVER messages on to the server?

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    Correct answer: B. a DHCP Relay Agent

    A DHCP relay agent forwards broadcast DHCPDISCOVER messages from clients to a server on a different subnet. Because routers block broadcast traffic by default, configuring an IP helper address is required to forward these messages as unicast across the network boundary.

  91. Question 91 of 906Which spanning-tree enhancement avoids the learning and listening states and immediately places ports in the forwarding state?

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    Correct answer: B. PortFast

    PortFast is a Spanning Tree Protocol enhancement configured on access ports to bypass the listening and learning states. This allows end devices to access the network immediately without waiting for the standard convergence timer to expire.

  92. Question 92 of 906What occurs to frames during the process of frame flooding?

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    Correct answer: C. Frames are sent to every port on the switch in the same VLAN except from the originating port.

    When a switch floods frames for unknown unicast or broadcast traffic, it forwards them out every port within the same VLAN except the receiving port. This action confines traffic to its assigned broadcast domain and prevents network loops.

  93. Question 93 of 906Which implementation provides the strongest encryption combination for the wireless environment?

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    Correct answer: D. WPA2 + AES

    WPA2 with AES provides the strongest encryption combination by using the Advanced Encryption Standard for robust data confidentiality. Older protocols like WEP or WPA with TKIP are legacy standards with known vulnerabilities and should be avoided.

  94. Question 94 of 906What is the default interface for in-band wireless network management on a WLC?

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    Correct answer: D. wireless management

    The wireless management interface serves as the default in-band management interface for Cisco Wireless LAN Controllers. It handles management traffic and CAPWAP control communications, distinguishing it from the out-of-band service port.

  95. Question 95 of 906What is a purpose of traffic shaping?

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    Correct answer: D. It regulates the rate of traffic by buffering and smoothing bursts.

    Traffic shaping regulates data transmission speeds by buffering excess packets to smooth out network bursts. This differs from traffic policing, which avoids queuing delays by immediately dropping packets that exceed the configured rate limit.

  96. Question 96 of 906Which network allows devices to communicate without the need to access the Internet?

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    Correct answer: B. 172.28.0.0/16

    RFC 1918 private IPv4 addresses allow internal devices to communicate without internet routing. The 172.28 network falls within the private 172.16 range, whereas the other options are public addresses.

  97. Question 97 of 906Which IPv6 address type provides communication between subnets and cannot route on the Internet?

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    Correct answer: B. unique local

    Unique local IPv6 addresses are designed for internal routing across multiple subnets without internet routability. Link-local traffic stays on the local subnet, and global unicast addresses route publicly.

  98. Question 98 of 906What will happen if you configure the logging trap debug command on a router?

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    Correct answer: C. It causes the router to send all messages to the syslog server

    The logging trap debug command sets the syslog severity threshold to level seven, capturing all messages from zero to seven. Because debug is the lowest severity, the router forwards every syslog message to the server.

  99. Question 99 of 906In an SDN architecture, which function of a network node is centralized on a controller?

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    Correct answer: C. Makes a routing decision

    Software-Defined Networking centralizes the control plane by moving routing decisions to the SDN controller. Individual network nodes simply act as data plane devices, forwarding traffic based on controller-programmed flow tables.

  100. Question 100 of 906When more than one AP-Manager interface is provisioned on a wireless LAN controller, how is the request handled by the AP?

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    Correct answer: C. The AP-Manager with the fewest number of APs is used by the AP to join.

    When multiple AP-Manager interfaces exist, the controller balances the load by assigning the access point to the one with the fewest joined devices. This ensures optimal controller resource utilization across the network.

  101. Question 101 of 906Which type of IPv4 address type helps to conserve the globally unique address classes?

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    Correct answer: C. private

    Private IPv4 addresses conserve globally unique public addresses by allowing internal reuse. Combined with network address translation, organizations can connect many private devices using just a few public IP addresses.

  102. Question 102 of 906Which statement is a fact related to FTP?

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    Correct answer: A. It uses two separate connections for control and data traffic.

    File Transfer Protocol uses two separate TCP connections for control and data traffic. The control connection manages commands, while the data connection transfers files. Distractors describing UDP port 69 or no authentication actually apply to TFTP.

  103. Question 103 of 906A network administrator needs to aggregate 4 ports into a single logical link which must negotiate layer 2 connectivity to ports on another switch. What must be configured when using active mode on both sides of the connection?

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    Correct answer: B. LACP

    Link Aggregation Control Protocol is required to dynamically negotiate EtherChannel bundles when interfaces are placed in active mode. Cisco virtual PortChannel is a Nexus feature, while 802.1Q provides VLAN tagging rather than link negotiation.

  104. Question 104 of 906How does a hub handle a frame traveling to a known destination MAC address differently than a switch?

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    Correct answer: A. The hub forwards the frame to all ports, and a switch forwards the frame to the known destination.

    A hub operates at Layer 1 and simply repeats incoming electrical signals to all other ports, ignoring MAC addresses. A switch operates at Layer 2 and selectively forwards frames out the specific destination port based on its MAC address table.

  105. Question 105 of 906Which technique can you use to route IPv6 traffic over an IPv4 infrastructure?

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    Correct answer: B. 6 to 4 tunneling

    Six to four tunneling encapsulates IPv6 packets inside IPv4 packets, allowing IPv6 traffic to traverse an IPv4 network. Dual-stack is incorrect because it requires both protocols to run natively rather than tunneling one over the other.

  106. Question 106 of 906Which technology is appropriate for communication between an SDN controller and applications running over the network?

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    Correct answer: B. REST API

    A REST API is commonly used as a northbound interface in SDN architectures, enabling communication between the controller and applications. Southbound APIs like OpenFlow are incorrect because they communicate downward with network devices instead of upward with applications.

  107. Question 107 of 906Which command should you enter to configure an LLDP delay time of 5 seconds?

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    Correct answer: D. lldp reinit 5

    The LLDP reinit command sets the reinitialization delay to five seconds, specifying the wait time before LLDP initializes on an interface. The timer and holdtime commands are incorrect because they control update frequency and cache retention rather than the initialization delay.

  108. Question 108 of 906Which of the following is the JSON encoding of a dictionary or hash?

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    Correct answer: A. { "key": "value" }

    In JSON, a dictionary or hash is represented using curly braces with key-value pairs. The bracket syntax is incorrect because it represents an array, which is an ordered list of values rather than a mapped collection of keys and values.

  109. Question 109 of 906A network engineer is asked to configure VLANs 2, 3, and 4 for a new implementation. Some ports must be assigned to the new VLANs with unused ports remaining. Which action should be taken for the unused ports?

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    Correct answer: C. configure ports in a black hole VLAN

    Unused ports should be assigned to an unused black hole VLAN to isolate them from production traffic completely. Avoid the native VLAN because default configurations leave it vulnerable to management access and tagging exploits.

  110. Question 110 of 906Which IPsec transport mode encrypts the IP header and the payload?

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    Correct answer: D. tunnel

    IPsec tunnel mode encrypts the entire original IP packet, including the original header and payload, before encapsulating it with a new header. Transport mode leaves the original IP header exposed, which makes it suitable only for host-to-host connections.

  111. Question 111 of 906What causes a port to be placed in the err-disabled state?

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    Correct answer: B. port security violation

    A port security violation triggers the error-disabled state as a protective mechanism to block unauthorized access. A standard shutdown command administratively disables an interface, while an empty port or latency simply results in a down or degraded status.

  112. Question 112 of 906What is the purpose of traffic shaping?

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    Correct answer: D. to limit the bandwidth that a flow can use

    Traffic shaping limits the bandwidth of a flow by buffering excess packets to enforce a steady transmission rate. Unlike policing, which drops or marks excess traffic immediately, shaping actively delays packets to smooth out network bursts.

  113. Question 113 of 906Which statement describes the purpose of VRRP?

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    Correct answer: A. allows two or more routers to act as a default gateway

    VRRP allows multiple routers to share a virtual IP address to act as a single default gateway for high availability. It is an open standard protocol, which effectively eliminates the proprietary distractor, and it relies on a configured virtual IP rather than dynamic assignment.

  114. Question 114 of 906A wireless administrator has configured a WLAN; however, the clients need access to a less congested 5-GHz network for their voice quality. Which action must be taken to meet the requirement?

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    Correct answer: A. enable Band Select

    Band Select steers dual-band clients away from the congested 2.4-GHz band by delaying probe responses. The other options manage power, multicast delivery, or authentication rather than frequency steering.

  115. Question 115 of 906An implementer is preparing hardware for virtualization to create virtual machines on a host. What is needed to provide communication between hardware and virtual machines?

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    Correct answer: B. hypervisor

    A hypervisor is the software layer that virtualizes physical hardware resources, enabling virtual machines to run on a host. Routers, switches, and cables are physical components that do not provide this specific hardware abstraction layer.

  116. Question 116 of 906What is a characteristic of an SSID in wireless networks?

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    Correct answer: D. associates a name to a WLAN

    A Service Set Identifier logically associates a name to a wireless LAN so client devices can identify and select the correct network. It does not inherently enforce security policies, prompt for login credentials, or require specific character combinations.

  117. Question 117 of 906What is a function of a remote access VPN?

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    Correct answer: D. allows the users to access company internal network resources through a secure tunnel

    A remote access VPN allows individual users to securely access company internal network resources through an encrypted tunnel. A site to site VPN connects branch offices, while remote access is designed for individual client devices connecting externally.

  118. Question 118 of 906What is a characteristic of encryption in wireless networks?

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    Correct answer: D. prevents the interception of data as it transits a network

    Encryption in wireless networks protects transmitted data by encoding it, which prevents the interception of readable data as it transits a network. It does not prevent spyware on local devices or actively detect zero day network attacks.

  119. Question 119 of 906Which element of a virtualization solution manages virtualized services and enables connections between virtualized services and external interfaces?

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    Correct answer: B. network functionality

    Network functionality manages communication between virtualized services and physical network interfaces using virtual switches. Hardware provides the physical compute resources, while the virtual machine is the isolated guest environment itself.

  120. Question 120 of 906Which WAN topology provides a combination of simplicity, quality, and availability?

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    Correct answer: A. partial mesh

    A partial mesh topology provides a practical balance of simplicity, cost, and availability. It offers redundancy for critical sites without the high expense and complexity of a full mesh network.

  121. Question 121 of 906What is a DHCP client?

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    Correct answer: B. a host that is configured to request an IP address automatically

    A Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol client is any host configured to request an IP address automatically. The server allocates the addresses, but the client initiates the request.

  122. Question 122 of 906Which type of wired port is required when an AP offers one unique SSID, passes client data and management traffic, and is in autonomous mode?

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    Correct answer: C. access

    When an autonomous access point uses a single Service Set Identifier, all client and management traffic shares one VLAN. Therefore, an access port is required because it does not use 802.1Q tagging.

  123. Question 123 of 906Which condition must be met before an NMS handles an SNMP trap from an agent?

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    Correct answer: C. C. The NMS software must be loaded with the MIB associated with the trap.

    A Network Management System must load the appropriate Management Information Base to properly interpret and handle incoming traps. Without the correct file, the system cannot translate the numeric data into readable text.

  124. Question 124 of 906Which port type supports the spanning-tree portfast command without additional configuration?

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    Correct answer: D. access ports

    PortFast is designed specifically for Layer 2 access ports connected to end devices. It can be enabled directly on these ports to bypass spanning-tree states, unlike trunk or routed ports.

  125. Question 125 of 906What is a characteristic of private IPv4 addressing?

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    Correct answer: A. is used without allocation from a regional internet authority

    Private IPv4 addresses do not require allocation from a Regional Internet Registry. They can be used internally by any organization. They do not provide unlimited ranges or automatically reduce router forwarding tables.

  126. Question 126 of 906What is the function of a server?

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    Correct answer: B. It provides shared applications to end users.

    A server provides shared applications, services, or data to end users or client devices. Routers, not servers, route traffic between Layer 3 devices or separate security zones.

  127. Question 127 of 906How does frame switching function on a switch?

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    Correct answer: A. floods unknown destinations to all ports except the receiving port

    When a switch receives a frame with an unknown destination MAC, it floods unknown destinations to all ports except the receiving port. Switches do not rewrite MAC addresses or forward frames with CRC errors.

  128. Question 128 of 906Which mode allows access points to be managed by Cisco Wireless LAN Controllers?

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    Correct answer: B. lightweight

    Lightweight mode enables an access point to be centrally managed by a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller using the CAPWAP protocol. Autonomous and bridge modes operate independently, which eliminates them as options for centralized controller-based management.

  129. Question 129 of 906What is a function of store-and forward switching?

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    Correct answer: B. It produces an effective level of error-free network traffic using CRCs.

    Store-and-forward switching receives the full frame and verifies the frame check sequence using cyclic redundancy checks. Cut-through forwarding eliminates this error checking to reduce latency, which confirms the correct benefit of error-free traffic.

  130. Question 130 of 906Which alternative to password authentication is implemented to allow enterprise devices to log in to the corporate network?

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    Correct answer: D. digital certificates

    Digital certificates provide certificate-based authentication, allowing enterprise devices to authenticate securely to the network without traditional passwords. This method is commonly implemented in enterprise environments for device authentication using 802.1X.

  131. Question 131 of 906What is a benefit for external users who consume public cloud resources?

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    Correct answer: C. Accessed over the Internet

    Public cloud resources are accessed over the Internet, allowing external users to consume services from virtually any location without dedicated infrastructure. Dedicated WAN connections and physical servers describe private or on-premises deployments instead.

  132. Question 132 of 906What is a reason to configure a trunk port that connects to a WLC distribution port?

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    Correct answer: B. Allow multiple VLANs to be used in the data path.

    A trunk port allows multiple VLANs to traverse a single physical link using IEEE 802.1Q tagging. This configuration is required for the data path so traffic from multiple WLANs mapped to different VLANs can cross the switch connection.

  133. Question 133 of 906How does a network administrator securely manage an AP in lightweight mode?

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    Correct answer: D. using the WLC GUI via HTTPS

    Lightweight access points are centrally managed through the Wireless LAN Controller. Secure management is performed by accessing the controller GUI using HTTPS, which then pushes configurations to the access points via secure CAPWAP tunnels.

  134. Question 134 of 906Which action is taken by the data plane within a network device?

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    Correct answer: C. Looks up an egress interface in the forwarding information base.

    The data plane is responsible for moving packets and relies on the forwarding information base to determine the proper egress interface. While forwarding traffic to the next hop is the ultimate result, the exact lookup action specifically defines the hardware plane.

  135. Question 135 of 906Which function forwards frames to ports that have a matching destination MAC address?

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    Correct answer: D. frame forwarding

    Frame forwarding is the switching function that sends traffic out the specific port associated with a known destination MAC address. Flooding occurs when the destination MAC address is unknown, sending traffic out all ports.

  136. Question 136 of 906Which mechanism carries multicast traffic between remote sites and supports encryption?

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    Correct answer: D. GRE over IPsec

    Generic Routing Encapsulation over IPsec allows multicast traffic to traverse remote sites while supporting encryption. Standard IPsec alone cannot natively encapsulate multicast broadcasts, so generic routing encapsulation is combined with it for secure transport.

  137. Question 137 of 906What facilitates a Telnet connection between devices by entering the device name?

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    Correct answer: B. DNS lookup

    DNS lookup resolves a device hostname to an IP address, allowing a Telnet connection by name. Without DNS, you would need to know the exact IP address, and syslog or NTP serve different network functions.

  138. Question 138 of 906Which Wireless LAN Controller port connects to a switch to pass normal access-point traffic?

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    Correct answer: D. data port

    A Wireless LAN Controller uses its data port to connect to the switch and carry normal access point traffic. While the service port handles out-of-band management, the data port manages CAPWAP and client data traffic.

  139. Question 139 of 906What does WPA3 provide in wireless networking?

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    Correct answer: B. safeguards against brute force attacks with SAE

    WPA3 introduces Simultaneous Authentication of Equals to replace WPA2 pre-shared keys, safeguarding networks against offline brute-force attacks. Protected Management Frames are mandatory in WPA3, making the optional negotiation distractor incorrect.

  140. Question 140 of 906Which port type does a lightweight AP use to connect to the wired network when it is configured in local mode?

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    Correct answer: D. trunk

    In local mode, a lightweight access point uses a trunk port to support multiple VLANs for client traffic and management. While link aggregation is often supported for redundancy, the fundamental port type required to carry the various VLANs is a trunk.

  141. Question 141 of 906Which function does the range of private IPv4 addresses perform?

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    Correct answer: A. allows multiple companies to each use the same addresses without conflicts

    Private IPv4 address ranges allow multiple companies to reuse the same addresses internally without global routing conflicts. Remember that private addresses require Network Address Translation to access the internet, eliminating the distractors about direct connections.

  142. Question 142 of 906Which standard protocol is used to negotiate Power over Ethernet (PoE) between a switch and an access point?

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    Correct answer: D. Link Layer Discovery Protocol (LLDP)

    Link Layer Discovery Protocol Media Endpoint Discovery is the IEEE standard used to negotiate Power over Ethernet parameters. Cisco Discovery Protocol is a proprietary alternative, so the exam rule favoring open standards eliminates it here.

  143. Question 143 of 906What is a recommended approach to avoid co-channel congestion while installing access points that use the 2.4 GHz frequency?

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    Correct answer: A. different nonoverlapping channels

    Deploying access points on different nonoverlapping channels minimizes co-channel interference in the 2.4 GHz band. Overlapping channels or reusing the same channel degrades performance due to contention, which is why channel 1, 6, and 11 are typically leveraged.

  144. Question 144 of 906Which IPv6 address range is suitable for anycast addresses for distributed services such as DHCP or DNS?

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    Correct answer: D. 2002:db84:3f30:ca84:be76:2/64

    Anycast addresses are allocated from the global unicast address space, which starts with 2000::/3. Multicast uses FF00::/8, and link-local uses FE80::/10, so both are invalid for global anycast routing.

  145. Question 145 of 906If a notice-level message is sent to a syslog server, which event has occurred?

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    Correct answer: C. A routing instance has flapped.

    Notice-level syslog messages indicate significant but normal operational events, such as a routing instance flapping. A debug operation runs at debugging level, while device restarts typically trigger emergency or alert messages.

  146. Question 146 of 906What is the same for both copper and fiber interfaces when using SFP modules?

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    Correct answer: C. They provide minimal interruption to services by being hot-swappable

    Both copper and fiber Small Form-factor Pluggable modules are hot-swappable, allowing replacement without powering down the device. The other options are invalid because SFPs operate at gigabit speeds and are media-specific.

  147. Question 147 of 906Which Rapid PVST+ feature should be configured on a switch port to immediately send traffic to a connected server as soon as it is active?

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    Correct answer: A. portfast

    PortFast allows an access port to bypass listening and learning states, transitioning immediately to the forwarding state. UplinkFast is used for redundant uplink recovery on root ports, not for edge devices like servers.

  148. Question 148 of 906An engineer is installing a new wireless printer with a static IP address on the Wi-Fi network. Which feature must be enabled and configured to prevent connection issues with the printer?

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    Correct answer: C. passive client

    The passive client feature allows wireless controllers to learn the IP addresses of static clients. Controllers normally rely on DHCP snooping to map IP and MAC addresses, meaning static clients fail to communicate without this feature enabled.

  149. Question 149 of 906What is a feature of TFTP?

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    Correct answer: A. offers anonymous user login ability

    Trivial File Transfer Protocol provides a lightweight method for anonymous file transfers without requiring authentication. It relies on a single UDP connection, eliminating the secure TCP options that describe File Transfer Protocol.

  150. Question 150 of 906What is the RFC 4627 default encoding for JSON text?

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    Correct answer: C. UTF-8

    JavaScript Object Notation text must be encoded using Unicode, with UTF-8 established as the standard encoding. This ensures efficient data serialization and backward compatibility with ASCII, which is expected for modern programmability and API integration.

  151. Question 151 of 906What must be considered for a locally switched FlexConnect AP if the VLANs that are used by the AP and client access are different?

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    Correct answer: C. The switch port mode must be set to trunk.

    A locally switched FlexConnect AP requires a trunk port when management and client VLANs differ. The trunk allows multiple tagged VLANs to traverse the single physical link. Distractors fail because disabling 802.1Q or forcing LAG does not enable the necessary multiple VLAN tagging.

  152. Question 152 of 906Which capability does TFTP provide?

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    Correct answer: A. loads configuration files on systems without data storage devices

    Trivial File Transfer Protocol provides a lightweight method to transfer files, often loading configurations or images onto diskless systems using UDP port 69. The distractors mention encryption, authentication, and secure access, which TFTP simply does not provide.

  153. Question 153 of 906What describes the functionality of southbound APIs?

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    Correct answer: A. They enable communication between the controller and the network device.

    Southbound APIs enable communication between the software defined networking controller and the underlying network devices. Northbound APIs flow upward to applications, which quickly eliminates the option mentioning applications.

  154. Question 154 of 906What is the difference between an IPv6 link-local address and a unique local address?

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    Correct answer: A. The scope of an IPv6 link-local address is limited to a directly attached interface, but an IPv6 unique local address is used throughout a company site or network.

    An IPv6 link-local address is automatically configured and limited strictly to the local link, while a unique local address routes internally across an organization. The distractors can be eliminated because link-local traffic is never routed globally.

  155. Question 155 of 906A network architect is considering whether to implement Cisco DNA Center to deploy devices on a new network. The organization is focused on reducing the time it currently takes to deploy devices in a traditional campus design. For which reason would Cisco DNA Center be more appropriate than traditional management options?

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    Correct answer: A. Cisco DNA Center supports deployment with a single pane of glass.

    Cisco DNA Center centralizes network management through a single pane of glass, streamlining device design and provisioning. The platform focuses strictly on Cisco devices, which eliminates the distractor claiming third-party zero-touch provisioning support.

  156. Question 156 of 906What must be considered before deploying virtual machines?

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    Correct answer: A. resource limitations, such as the number of CPU cores and the amount of memory

    Before deploying virtual machines, administrators must evaluate host resource capacity, including CPU cores and RAM. The remaining options focus on physical hardware peripherals or generalized data center placement, which are not the primary technical constraints for virtualization.

  157. Question 157 of 906After installing a new Cisco ISE server, which task must the engineer perform on the Cisco WLC to connect wireless clients on a specific VLAN based on their credentials?

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    Correct answer: C. Enable the Allow AAA Override.

    Enabling AAA Override allows the WLC to accept dynamic VLAN assignments from Cisco ISE based on user credentials. Without this feature enabled, the controller ignores authorization attributes returned by the RADIUS server, and clients are placed into their default interface VLAN.

  158. Question 158 of 906What is the recommended switch load-balancing mode for Cisco WLCs?

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    Correct answer: D. source-destination MAC address

    Source-destination MAC load balancing is recommended for WLCs because CAPWAP tunnels encapsulate traffic at Layer 2. Using IP-based hashing would incorrectly map all controller traffic to a single link since the packets share the same IP headers.

  159. Question 159 of 906A network engineer must configure two new subnets using the address block 10.70.128.0/19 to meet these requirements: – The first subnet must support 24 hosts. – The second subnet must support 472 hosts. – Both subnets must use the longest subnet mask possible from the address block.Which two configurations must be used to configure the new subnets and meet the requirement to use the first available address in each subnet for the VLAN interfaces? (Choose two.)

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    Correct answer: E. interface vlan 1148 · F. ip address 10.70.148.1 255.255.254.0

    The first usable IP of a valid subnet boundary must be assigned to the VLAN interface. Here, a /23 mask correctly supports the 472-host requirement, while a /27 mask supports the 24-host requirement. Other options fail due to incorrect network boundaries or violating the longest subnet mask rule.

  160. Question 160 of 906Which communication interaction takes place when a southbound API is used?

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    Correct answer: B. B. between the SDN controller and switches and routers on the network

    A southbound application programming interface facilitates communication between the control plane and infrastructure devices like switches and routers. Northbound APIs handle communication between the controller and applications, easily eliminating those distractors.

  161. Question 161 of 906An application in the network is being scaled up from 300 servers to 600. Each server requires 3 network connections to support production, backup, and management traffic. Each connection resides on a different subnet. The router configuration for the production network must be configured first using a subnet in the 10.0.0.0/8 network. Which command must be configured on the interface of the router to accommodate the requirements and limit wasted IP address space?

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    Correct answer: B. B. ip address 10.10.10.1 255.255.252.0

    The subnet mask 255.255.252.0 provides 1022 usable host addresses, making it the smallest available block that supports 600 hosts. Exam rules dictate choosing the smallest subnet that meets host requirements to strictly limit wasted IP address space.

  162. Question 162 of 906Which type of attack is mitigated by dynamic ARP inspection?

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    Correct answer: C. C. man-in-the-middle

    Dynamic ARP inspection mitigates man-in-the-middle attacks by validating ARP packets against a trusted DHCP snooping binding table. Distractors like DDoS or worms operate at different network layers, making man-in-the-middle the only correct target for Layer 2 ARP spoofing.

  163. Question 163 of 906Which remote access protocol provides unsecured remote CLI access?

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    Correct answer: B. B. Telnet

    Telnet provides remote command-line access but transmits all data in clear text, making it an unsecured protocol. SSH provides encrypted access, while console connections are physical and Bash is a local shell rather than a remote protocol.

  164. Question 164 of 906What is the path for traffic sent from one user workstation to another workstation on a separate switch in a three-tier architecture model?

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    Correct answer: D. D. access → distribution → core → distribution → access

    In a three-tier campus design, traffic moves from the access layer to the distribution layer, crosses the core, and routes back down the remote distribution and access layers. The hierarchical structure requires this path when traversing separate switch blocks.

  165. Question 165 of 906Which protocol uses TCP port 22 by default?

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    Correct answer: D. D. SSH

    Secure Shell uses TCP port 22 by default to provide encrypted remote management access. Telnet uses port 23, while HTTP and HTTPS use ports 80 and 443 respectively, making SSH the clear match.

  166. Question 166 of 906What is the difference in data transmission delivery and reliability between TCP and UDP?

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    Correct answer: B. B. TCP requires the connection to be established before transmitting data. UDP transmits data at a higher rate without ensuring packet delivery.

    TCP is a connection-oriented protocol requiring a handshake to provide reliable data delivery. UDP is connectionless and sacrifices delivery guarantees for lower overhead and faster transmission.

  167. Question 167 of 906Which CRUD operation corresponds to the HTTP GET method?

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    Correct answer: B. B. read

    The HTTP GET method retrieves data without modifying it, corresponding directly to the Read operation in CRUD. The Create, Update, and Delete operations map to HTTP POST, PUT, PATCH, or DELETE methods.

  168. Question 168 of 906Which SNMP message type is reliable and precedes an acknowledgment response from the SNMP manager?

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    Correct answer: B. B. Inform

    SNMP Inform messages require an acknowledgment from the manager to confirm delivery. Traps are asynchronous notifications sent without expecting a response.

  169. Question 169 of 906When a switch receives a frame for a known destination MAC address, how is the frame handled?

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    Correct answer: C. C. sent to the port identified for the known MAC address

    A switch forwards frames directly to the port associated with the known destination MAC address. Unknown unicast frames are flooded out all active ports except the receiving port.

  170. Question 170 of 906Which NAT feature allows multiple inside hosts to share a single public IPv4 address by using unique TCP/UDP ports?

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    Correct answer: D. D. PAT

    Port Address Translation maps multiple inside local addresses to a single inside global address using unique Layer 4 port numbers. Static and dynamic NAT map one-to-one without sharing ports, so they fail this requirement.

  171. Question 171 of 906Which device permits or denies network traffic based on a set of rules?

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    Correct answer: B. B. firewall

    A firewall enforces network security by explicitly permitting or denying traffic based on configured rule sets. While switches and controllers direct traffic, they rely on standard forwarding logic rather than strict security policies.

  172. Question 172 of 906Where is the interface between the control plane and data plane within the software-defined architecture?

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    Correct answer: D. D. control layer and the infrastructure layer

    In software-defined networking, the southbound interface connects the control layer to the infrastructure layer. This boundary defines where centralized controllers push forwarding instructions down to distributed data plane hardware.

  173. Question 173 of 906How does HSRP provide first hop redundancy?

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    Correct answer: B. B. It uses a shared virtual MAC and a virtual IP address to a group of routers that serve as the default gateway for hosts on a LAN.

    Hot Standby Router Protocol provides first hop redundancy by sharing a virtual IP and MAC address among multiple routers. Hosts use this virtual gateway seamlessly, ignoring whether the active or standby router currently handles forwarding.

  174. Question 174 of 906Which unified access point mode continues to serve wireless clients after losing connectivity to the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?

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    Correct answer: C. C. flexconnect

    FlexConnect allows an access point to locally switch client traffic if it loses connectivity to the WLC. This enables continued wireless service in branch deployments even if the WAN link to the controller fails.

  175. Question 175 of 906Which global command encrypts all passwords in the running configuration?

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    Correct answer: A. A. service password-encryption

    The global command service password-encryption encrypts all plaintext passwords in the running configuration, including line passwords. This provides a basic level of protection against casual viewing of weakly stored credentials.

  176. Question 176 of 906Which cable type must be used when connecting a router and switch together using these criteria? Pins 1 and 2 are receivers and pins 3 and 6 are transmitters. Auto detection MDI-X is unavailable.

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    Correct answer: D. D. straight-through

    A straight-through cable maintains the same pinout on both ends and connects unlike devices such as a router to a switch. Because one device transmits on pins one and two while the other receives, no crossover is required.

  177. Question 177 of 906Which Layer 2 switch function encapsulates packets for different VLANs so that the packets traverse the same port and maintain traffic separation between the VLANs?

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    Correct answer: D. D. VLAN tagging

    VLAN tagging, specifically using IEEE 802.1Q, inserts a tag into the Ethernet frame to identify the VLAN. This allows multiple VLANs to traverse the same physical trunk port while strictly maintaining traffic separation.

  178. Question 178 of 906A network architect is deciding whether to implement Cisco autonomous access points or lightweight access points. Which fact about firmware updates must the architect consider?

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    Correct answer: B. B. Unlike autonomous access points, lightweight access points require a WLC to implement remote firmware updates.

    Lightweight access points depend on a Wireless LAN Controller to receive and manage firmware updates. The controller distributes the appropriate image to associated access points, whereas autonomous APs are upgraded individually.

  179. Question 179 of 906A packet from a company's branch office is destined to host 172.31.0.1 at headquarters. The sending router has three possible matches in its routing table for the packet: prefixes 172.31.0.0/16, 172.31.0.0/24, and 172.31.0.0/25. How does the router handle the packet?

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    Correct answer: C. C. It sends the traffic via prefix 172.31.0.0/25.

    Routers use the longest prefix match rule to select the most specific route in the routing table. The /25 prefix has the longest subnet mask, making it the preferred path over the /16 and /24 routes, as it represents the most exact destination network.

  180. Question 180 of 906An engineer needs to configure LLDP to send the port description type length value (TLV). Which command sequence must be implemented?

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    Correct answer: D. D. switch(config)#lldp port-description

    Link Layer Discovery Protocol TLV advertisement settings, such as sending the port description, are configured globally. The correct command must be executed in global configuration mode, which eliminates the interface and line configuration modes as valid options.

  181. Question 181 of 906Which protocol is used in Software Defined Access (SDA) to provide a tunnel between two edge nodes in different fabrics?

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    Correct answer: C. C. Virtual Extensible LAN (VXLAN)

    Virtual Extensible Local Area Network, or VXLAN, is the data-plane encapsulation protocol used in Software-Defined Access to create overlay networks. VXLAN encapsulates Layer 2 frames inside UDP packets, providing scalable segmentation across the fabric.

  182. Question 182 of 906What is a characteristic of a collapsed-core network topology?

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    Correct answer: D. D. It allows the core and distribution layers to run as a single combined layer.

    A collapsed-core network topology combines the core and distribution layers into a single logical tier. This design is typically implemented in smaller campus networks to reduce hardware costs and configuration complexity while maintaining adequate performance.

  183. Question 183 of 906How is RFC 1918 addressing used in a network?

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    Correct answer: C. C. They are used with NAT to preserve public IPv4 addresses.

    RFC 1918 private IP addresses are used internally within a network and must be translated using Network Address Translation to access the internet. This translation process allows multiple internal devices to share a single public IP address, preserving the limited IPv4 space.

  184. Question 184 of 906What is the purpose of using First Hop Redundancy Protocol on a specific subnet?

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    Correct answer: B. B. provides a redundant default gateway for hosts on a subnet

    First Hop Redundancy Protocols provide gateway redundancy by allowing multiple routers to share a single virtual IP address. If the active default gateway fails, another router assumes the virtual IP, ensuring continuous network access for hosts without requiring reconfiguration.

  185. Question 185 of 906What is a requirement when configuring or removing LAG on a WLC?

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    Correct answer: C. C. The controller must be rebooted after enabling or reconfiguring LAG

    Enabling, disabling, or reconfiguring Link Aggregation on a Wireless LAN Controller requires a reboot to apply the physical port changes. Interface assignments are negotiated automatically when Link Aggregation is active.

  186. Question 186 of 906Which command displays the IPv4 routing table on a Cisco IOS device?

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    Correct answer: A. A. show ip route

    The show ip route command displays the active IPv4 routing table, including connected, static, and dynamic routes. The show ip interface brief command only displays interface statuses, not routing logic.

  187. Question 187 of 906What occurs when overlapping Wi-Fi channels are implemented?

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    Correct answer: A. A. Users experience poor wireless network performance.

    Overlapping Wi-Fi channels cause adjacent-channel interference, resulting in packet retransmissions and poor network performance. Proper channel planning, like using channels one, six, and eleven, mitigates this degradation.

  188. Question 188 of 906Which wireless security protocol relies on Perfect Forward Secrecy?

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    Correct answer: D. D. WPA3

    WPA3 uses Simultaneous Authentication of Equals to provide Perfect Forward Secrecy. Older protocols like WPA2 lack this feature, making them vulnerable to offline dictionary attacks if the passphrase is compromised.

  189. Question 189 of 906Which QoS per-hop behavior changes the value of the ToS field in the IPv4 packet header?

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    Correct answer: D. D. Marking

    Marking modifies the Type of Service field in the IPv4 header to assign a specific class of service. Classification only identifies traffic, while policing and shaping manage traffic flow without altering headers.

  190. Question 190 of 906Which protocol is implemented when an organization must verify network performance, troubleshoot issues, and use an agent to communicate between monitoring tools and end devices?

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    Correct answer: D. D. SNMP

    The Simple Network Management Protocol uses an agent-based model to collect performance data and troubleshoot devices. The manager queries these agents, distinguishing it from file transfer or unrelated protocols.

  191. Question 191 of 906Which network plane is centralized and manages routing decisions?

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    Correct answer: D. D. control plane

    The control plane manages routing decisions and builds routing tables. In Software-Defined Networking, this plane is centralized within a controller, which programs the underlying data plane devices.

  192. Question 192 of 906In which circumstance would a network architect decide to implement a global unicast subnet instead of a unique local unicast subnet?

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    Correct answer: D. D. when the subnet must be routable over the internet

    Global unicast IPv6 addresses are publicly routable on the internet. Unique local addresses function similarly to private IPv4 ranges and are not routed externally, making internet routability the deciding factor.

  193. Question 193 of 906How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they provide reliability for delivery of packets?

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    Correct answer: B. B. TCP provides flow control to avoid overwhelming a receiver by sending too many packets at once, UDP sends packets to the receiver in a continuous stream without checking.

    TCP uses flow control mechanisms like windowing to prevent overwhelming a receiver. UDP operates as a continuous, connectionless stream without these reliability checks, clearly distinguishing the two protocols.

  194. Question 194 of 906What is a function of MAC address learning?

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    Correct answer: C. C. It dynamically learns source MAC addresses and builds a MAC address table to enable frame forwarding

    MAC address learning dynamically records source addresses and their ingress ports to build a MAC address table. This enables efficient unicast frame forwarding instead of flooding, defining core switch operation.

  195. Question 195 of 906An organization has decided to start using cloud-provided services. Which cloud service allows the organization to install its own operating system on a virtual machine?

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    Correct answer: D. D. infrastructure-as-a-service

    Infrastructure as a Service provides virtualized computing resources where customers install their own operating systems. Platform and Software as a Service limit this control, making infrastructure the required model.

  196. Question 196 of 906Which syslog severity level is considered the most severe and results in the system being considered unusable?

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    Correct answer: B. B. Emergency

    Syslog level zero, known as Emergency, indicates the system is completely unusable. The lower the numerical value in syslog, the higher the severity, making Emergency more critical than Alert or Critical.

  197. Question 197 of 906Which type of port is used to connect the wired network when an autonomous AP maps two VLANs to its WLANs?

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    Correct answer: C. C. trunk

    A trunk port is required when multiple VLANs must traverse a single physical interface. Because the autonomous access point maps two VLANs to its wireless networks, the switch port must carry tagged traffic for both VLANs.

  198. Question 198 of 906Which Rapid PVST+ port state does a port operate in without forwarding frames or updating the MAC address table?

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    Correct answer: D. D. discarding

    In Rapid Spanning Tree, the discarding state replaces the traditional blocking and listening states. A port in this state does not forward data frames or learn MAC addresses, but it still processes BPDUs to maintain loop-free topology.

  199. Question 199 of 906Which configuration is needed to generate an RSA key for SSH on a router?

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    Correct answer: C. C. Assign a DNS domain name.

    Generating an RSA key pair requires a hostname and a DNS domain name to create the crypto identity. While configuring VTY access is necessary for remote login, the key generation itself strictly requires the domain name.

  200. Question 200 of 906Which mode must be used to configure EtherChannel between two switches without using a negotiation protocol?

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    Correct answer: B. B. on

    Setting the channel group mode to on forces the interface to form an EtherChannel without using any negotiation protocol. Both sides must be manually configured with this mode for the bundle to form successfully.

  201. Question 201 of 906What is the effect when loopback interfaces and the configured router ID are absent during OSPF process configuration?

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    Correct answer: D. D. The highest up/up physical interface IP address is selected as the router ID.

    If no router ID is manually configured and no loopback interfaces exist, OSPF automatically selects the highest IP address on an active physical interface. The protocol selects the highest IP address rather than modifying it or failing to run.

  202. Question 202 of 906Which IPsec encryption mode is appropriate when the destination of a packet differs from the security termination point?

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    Correct answer: D. D. tunnel

    Tunnel mode encapsulates the entire original IP packet within a new packet with a separate outer header. This is necessary when the security termination points differ from the actual traffic source and destination, which is common in site-to-site VPNs.

  203. Question 203 of 906What does a switch do when it receives a frame whose destination MAC address is missing from the MAC address table?

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    Correct answer: D. D. It floods the frame unchanged across all remaining ports in the incoming VLAN.

    When a switch receives a frame with an unknown destination MAC address, it treats it as unknown unicast and floods it unchanged. This forwarding occurs out all other ports within the incoming VLAN except the receiving port.

  204. Question 204 of 906Which protocol requires authentication to transfer a backup configuration file from a router to a remote server?

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    Correct answer: A. A. FTP

    File Transfer Protocol requires a username and password before allowing file transfers. When backing up a router configuration using commands such as copy running-config ftp, the router prompts for credentials, unlike simpler protocols like TFTP.

  205. Question 205 of 906Which default condition must be considered when an encrypted mobility tunnel is used between two Cisco WLCs?

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    Correct answer: B. B. Encryption is not enabled by default and must be explicitly configured.

    Mobility tunnels between Wireless LAN Controllers are not encrypted by default. If encryption is required for inter-controller roaming across untrusted networks, it must be explicitly enabled rather than being an automatic default behavior.

  206. Question 206 of 906Which enhancement is implemented in WPA3?

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    Correct answer: D. D. protects against brute force attacks

    Wi-Fi Protected Access version three implements Simultaneous Authentication of Equals, which protects against offline brute-force attacks on passwords. This ensures that captured handshakes cannot be used for efficient offline dictionary attacks, a major improvement over previous versions.

  207. Question 207 of 906Which type of organization should use a collapsed-core architecture?

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    Correct answer: A. A. small and needs to reduce networking costs

    A collapsed-core architecture combines the core and distribution layers into a single tier, reducing hardware and operational costs. This design fits small organizations needing simplicity rather than large or rapidly growing networks that require the scalability of a three-tier model.

  208. Question 208 of 906What uses HTTP messages to transfer data to applications residing on different hosts?

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    Correct answer: C. C. REST

    Representational State Transfer uses standard HTTP methods like GET and POST to exchange data between applications on separate hosts. OpenFlow relies on a dedicated secure channel, whereas OpenStack manages virtual infrastructure rather than direct HTTP data transfers.

  209. Question 209 of 906When should an engineer implement a collapsed-core architecture?

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    Correct answer: B. B. For small networks with minimal need for growth

    Engineers implement a collapsed-core architecture for small networks with minimal growth requirements to reduce cost and complexity. Large networks or multi-site deployments require a full three-tier design to handle scaling and high availability.

  210. Question 210 of 906How are VLAN hopping attacks mitigated?

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    Correct answer: A. A. manually implement trunk ports and disable DTP

    VLAN hopping attacks are mitigated by manually configuring trunk ports and disabling Dynamic Trunking Protocol. Disabling DTP prevents rogue devices from automatically negotiating a trunk link to access unauthorized VLANs.

  211. Question 211 of 906What is a zero-day exploit?

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    Correct answer: C. C. It is when a new network vulnerability is discovered before a fix is available.

    A zero-day exploit targets a newly discovered vulnerability for which no patch or vendor fix is currently available. Attack options describing traffic saturation, SQL injection, or man-in-the-middle attacks represent different types of network threats.

  212. Question 212 of 906Which key function is provided by the data plane?

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    Correct answer: D. D. Forwarding traffic to the next hop

    The data plane is responsible for forwarding traffic to the next hop based on the forwarding information base. The control plane handles routing decisions and exchanging routing table information.

  213. Question 213 of 906Why is a first-hop redundancy protocol implemented?

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    Correct answer: D. D. to protect against default gateway failures

    First Hop Redundancy Protocols protect against default gateway failures by allowing multiple routers to share a virtual IP address. Options describing switch stacking, load-sharing, or loop prevention target different network features like VSS, EtherChannel, and Spanning Tree.

  214. Question 214 of 906Which set of 2.4 GHz nonoverlapping wireless channels is standard in the United States?

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    Correct answer: D. D. channels 1, 6, and 11

    Channels one, six, and eleven are the only standard nonoverlapping channels in the two point four gigahertz band within the United States. Channel fourteen is restricted to Japan, while the other combinations either overlap or are nonstandard.

  215. Question 215 of 906How is noise defined in Wi-Fi?

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    Correct answer: B. B. any interference that is not Wi-Fi traffic that degrades the desired signal

    Wi-Fi noise is defined as any non-Wi-Fi interference that degrades the desired wireless signal, such as microwaves or Bluetooth devices. Options mentioning co-channel interference or signal-to-noise ratios confuse noise sources with related metrics.

  216. Question 216 of 906When a site-to-site VPN is used, which protocol is responsible for the transport of user data?

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    Correct answer: A. A. IPsec

    IP Security, or IPsec, is responsible for encrypting and transporting user data across a site-to-site VPN tunnel. Internet Key Exchange versions one and two handle session negotiation, while MD5 provides integrity checking.

  217. Question 217 of 906Which type of IPv6 address is similar to a unicast address but is assigned to multiple devices on the same network at the same time?

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    Correct answer: C. C. anycast address

    An anycast address shares the format of a unicast address but is assigned to multiple devices, routing traffic to the nearest node. Multicast is strictly one-to-many, while global and link-local addresses identify single interfaces.

  218. Question 218 of 906Which enhancements were implemented as part of WPA3?

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    Correct answer: A. A. Forward secrecy and SAE in personal mode for secure initial key exchange

    WPA3 implements Simultaneous Authentication of Equals for personal mode, providing forward secrecy and a secure initial key exchange. TKIP is an obsolete WPA feature, while AES encryption applies to multiple generations.

  219. Question 219 of 906A WLC sends alarms about a rogue AP, and the network administrator verifies that the alarms are caused by a legitimate autonomous AP. How must the alarms be stopped for the MAC address of the AP?

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    Correct answer: D. D. Set the AP Class Type to Friendly.

    When a wireless LAN controller detects a legitimate autonomous access point as a rogue, the alarms must be stopped by classifying its MAC address as friendly. Manual containment is a mitigation action used against actual threats.

  220. Question 220 of 906Which plane is centralized in software-defined networking?

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    Correct answer: D. D. control

    Software-defined networking centralizes the control plane within an SDN controller, which programs the data plane to make forwarding decisions. The application and data planes remain distributed across the network devices.

  221. Question 221 of 906What is the difference between controller-based networks and traditional networks as they relate to control-plane and/or data-plane functions?

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    Correct answer: D. D. Controller-based networks centralize all important control-plane functions, and traditional networks distribute control-plane functions.

    Controller-based networks centralize the control plane, whereas traditional networks distribute control plane intelligence across individual devices. Traditional networking forces every device to build its own forwarding tables independently, which increases operational overhead.

  222. Question 222 of 906Which SDN plane forwards user-generated traffic?

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    Correct answer: D. D. Data plane

    The data plane, also called the forwarding plane, handles the actual physical forwarding of user-generated traffic based on programming from the control plane. Management and control planes operate independently and do not process user packets directly.

  223. Question 223 of 906What is a reason why an administrator would choose to implement an automated network management approach?

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    Correct answer: C. C. Reduce inconsistencies in the network configuration.

    Network automation enforces standardized, repeatable configurations which directly reduces human error and configuration drift across devices. The other options describe negative outcomes or traditional manual approaches that automation specifically aims to eliminate.

  224. Question 224 of 906What describes a northbound REST API for SDN?

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    Correct answer: C. C. application-facing interface for GET, POST, PUT, and DELETE methods

    A northbound application programming interface is application-facing, allowing external programs to communicate with the controller using HTTP methods. Southbound interfaces face the network elements, eliminating the other options.

  225. Question 225 of 906What is the collapsed layer in collapsed core architectures?

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    Correct answer: A. A. Core and distribution

    A collapsed core architecture combines the core and distribution layers into a single tier to reduce hardware costs and complexity. The access layer remains separate, creating a simplified two-tier network design.

  226. Question 226 of 906An engineer must configure R1 for a new user account. The account must meet these requirements: • It must be configured in the local database. • The username is engineer2. • It must use the strongest password configurable.Which command must the engineer configure on the router?

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    Correct answer: C. C. R1(config)# username engineer2 algorithm-type scrypt secret test2021

    The scrypt hashing algorithm provides the strongest resistance against brute-force attacks for local user accounts on Cisco devices. Type 5 and Type 7 passwords rely on older, weaker encryption or hashing methods, making them less secure.

  227. Question 227 of 906Which QoS traffic handling technique retains excess packets in a queue and reschedules these packets for later transmission when the configured maximum bandwidth has been surpassed?

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    Correct answer: D. D. traffic shaping

    Traffic shaping buffers excess packets to smooth traffic flow and transmits them later when bandwidth is available. Traffic policing drops packets immediately when the configured rate is exceeded.

  228. Question 228 of 906Which statement correctly describes syslog severity levels?

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    Correct answer: C. C. The logging level defines the severity of a particular message.

    Syslog severity levels range from zero to seven and define the importance of a specific message. By default, devices send level zero through level six messages to local logging destinations.

  229. Question 229 of 906Which switching feature removes unused MAC addresses from the MAC address table, which allows new MAC addresses to be added?

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    Correct answer: A. A. MAC address aging

    MAC address aging removes stale entries from the MAC address table after a period of inactivity. This automated process prevents the table from filling up with inactive devices.

  230. Question 230 of 906Which protocol must be implemented to support separate authorization and authentication solutions for wireless APs?

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    Correct answer: B. B. TACACS+

    TACACS+ separates authentication, authorization, and accounting into distinct processes. RADIUS is typically preferred for wireless networks, but it combines authorization and authentication, making TACACS+ the correct choice for independent control.

  231. Question 231 of 906Which value can you modify to configure a specific interface as the preferred forwarding interface?

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    Correct answer: B. B. The port priority

    Spanning Tree Protocol uses the port ID as a tiebreaker when path costs are equal. By lowering the port priority value on a specific interface, you can force it to become the preferred forwarding port.

  232. Question 232 of 906Which statement compares traditional networks and controller-based networks?

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    Correct answer: A. A. Only controller-based networks decouple the control plane and the data plane.

    Controller-based networks decouple the control plane from the data plane, allowing centralized management of forwarding tables. Traditional networks keep these planes coupled on each individual device, so this separation is unique to controller architectures.

  233. Question 233 of 906Which protocol resolves an IPv4 address to a MAC address on the local LAN segment?

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    Correct answer: A. A. ARP

    Address Resolution Protocol maps a known IPv4 address to the corresponding Layer 2 MAC address on a local broadcast domain. Hosts use ARP before sending Ethernet frames when they know the destination IP but need the destination MAC.

  234. Question 234 of 906Which protocol does Ansible use to push modules to nodes in a network?

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    Correct answer: D. D. SSH

    Ansible uses SSH by default to securely connect to managed nodes and push modules for execution. SSH provides encrypted communication and authentication between the control node and managed network devices.

  235. Question 235 of 906What is a specification for SSIDs?

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    Correct answer: C. C. They are case sensitive.

    Service Set Identifiers are case sensitive, meaning uppercase and lowercase letters create different network names. Wireless clients must match the SSID exactly to associate with the correct wireless network.

  236. Question 236 of 906What is the role of disaggregation in controller-based networking?

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    Correct answer: A. A. It divides the control-plane and data-plane functions.

    Disaggregation in controller-based networking separates the control plane from the data plane. The centralized controller manages network intelligence while the underlying forwarding devices handle packet routing.

  237. Question 237 of 906What is a function of Opportunistic Wireless Encryption in an environment?

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    Correct answer: B. B. protect traffic on open networks

    Opportunistic Wireless Encryption protects traffic on open Wi-Fi networks without requiring passwords. It uses individualized encryption keys between the client and access point to prevent eavesdropping while maintaining easy access.

  238. Question 238 of 906What is a function of Layer 3 switches?

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    Correct answer: A. A. They route traffic between devices in different VLANs.

    A Layer 3 switch routes traffic between different VLANs using switched virtual interfaces or routed ports. Standard switching relies on MAC addresses to move frames within the same broadcast domain, eliminating the other choices.

  239. Question 239 of 906Which protocol should be used to transfer large files on a company intranet that allows TCP 20 and 21 through the firewall?

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    Correct answer: D. D. FTP

    File Transfer Protocol uses TCP port 21 for control and TCP port 20 for active data transfers. Since the firewall explicitly permits these ports, FTP is the correct choice over TFTP or application protocols.

  240. Question 240 of 906What is the purpose of the service-set identifier?

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    Correct answer: D. D. It identifies a wireless network for a mobile device to connect.

    The service-set identifier, or SSID, identifies a specific wireless LAN that a mobile or wireless client device can discover and join. The SSID allows clients to distinguish between multiple wireless networks within range and select the appropriate WLAN for association.

  241. Question 241 of 906Which NAT term is defined as a group of addresses available for NAT use?

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    Correct answer: A. A. NAT pool

    A NAT pool is a defined range of public IP addresses made available for translation. When dynamic NAT is configured, the router selects an available address from this pool to translate inside local addresses.

  242. Question 242 of 906What is the role of nonoverlapping channels in a wireless environment?

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    Correct answer: D. D. to reduce interference

    Nonoverlapping channels are utilized to reduce co-channel and adjacent-channel interference in wireless networks. In the 2.4 GHz band, channels one, six, and eleven are commonly used because their frequencies do not overlap.

  243. Question 243 of 906Which statement about Cisco Discovery Protocol is true?

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    Correct answer: A. A. It is a Cisco-proprietary protocol.

    Cisco Discovery Protocol is a Cisco-proprietary protocol used to share information between directly connected Cisco devices. This exclusivity is its primary differentiator from the standards-based alternative, Link Layer Discovery Protocol.

  244. Question 244 of 906What is a difference between local AP mode and FlexConnect AP mode?

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    Correct answer: A. A. Local AP mode creates two CAPWAP tunnels per AP to the WLC

    In local mode, an access point establishes two CAPWAP tunnels to the wireless LAN controller for control and data traffic. FlexConnect allows local switching at the edge, eliminating the need to bridge all client traffic back to the controller.

  245. Question 245 of 906Which access point mode relies on a centralized controller for management, roaming, and SSID configuration?

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    Correct answer: A. A. lightweight mode

    Lightweight mode relies on a centralized Wireless LAN Controller for management and roaming. Autonomous mode operates independently without a controller, eliminating the other options.

  246. Question 246 of 906Which PoE mode enables powered-device detection and guarantees power when the device is detected?

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    Correct answer: A. A. auto

    Power over Ethernet auto mode detects compliant devices and automatically supplies power within the budget. Static mode applies power continuously without verifying the actual device requirements.

  247. Question 247 of 906Which NAT address type represents the public IP address used to represent an internal host after translation?

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    Correct answer: C. C. inside global

    Inside global represents the public IP address used to represent an internal host after translation. Inside local refers to the private address before translation, helping you eliminate related distractors.

  248. Question 248 of 906Which security program element involves installing badge readers on data-center doors to allow workers to enter and exit based on their job roles?

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    Correct answer: A. A. physical access control

    Physical access control restricts facility entry using measures like badge readers. Role-based access control strictly governs logical network permissions, not physical door entry, eliminating that distractor.

  249. Question 249 of 906On a corporate network, hosts on the same VLAN can communicate with each other, but they are unable to communicate with hosts on different VLANs. What is required to allow communication between VLANs?

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    Correct answer: A. A. a Layer 3 device to perform inter-VLAN routing

    Inter-VLAN routing requires a Layer 3 device, such as a router or multilayer switch, to forward traffic between separate subnets. Trunk links merely pass VLAN traffic; they do not route between them.

  250. Question 250 of 906How does a Layer 2 switch forward frames for known unicast destinations?

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    Correct answer: C. C. forwards frames only out the port associated with the destination MAC address

    A Layer 2 switch forwards known unicast frames only out the specific port mapped to the destination MAC address. It floods unknown unicast frames out all active access and trunk ports instead.

  251. Question 251 of 906Which WPA mode uses PSK authenticaton?

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    Correct answer: B. B. Personal

    WPA Personal mode, also known as WPA-PSK, uses a Pre-Shared Key for authentication. WPA Enterprise uses a RADIUS server, which distinguishes it from the Personal mode required by the prompt.

  252. Question 252 of 906Which command enables HTTPS access to the Cisco WLC?

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    Correct answer: B. B. config network secureweb enable

    The command config network secureweb enable activates HTTPS access on a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller. The other commands either enable insecure protocols like Telnet or handle unrelated certificate generation.

  253. Question 253 of 906Which CRUD operation modifies an existing table or view?

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    Correct answer: B. B. update

    The Update operation modifies existing data within a table or view. Create inserts new records, while Read retrieves them, making Update the standard choice for editing existing database entries.

  254. Question 254 of 906Which technology prevents client devices from arbitrarily connecting to the network without state remediation?

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    Correct answer: B. B. 802.1x

    IEEE 802.1X provides port-based network access control, requiring authentication before granting access. It integrates with RADIUS servers to enforce posture checks, blocking noncompliant devices from connecting.

  255. Question 255 of 906In QoS, which prioritization method is appropriate for interactive voice and video?

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    Correct answer: C. C. low-latency queuing

    Low-Latency Queuing provides strict priority scheduling for delay-sensitive interactive voice and video. Expedited forwarding is a marking behavior, not a scheduling mechanism, making Low-Latency Queuing the operational configuration.

  256. Question 256 of 906Which command creates a static NAT binding for a PC address of 10.1.1.1 to the public routable address 209.165.200.225 assigned to the PC?

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    Correct answer: A. A. R1(config)#ip nat inside source static 10.1.1.1 209.165.200.225

    The command for static NAT maps the inside local address to the inside global address. The correct syntax places the private address first, followed by the public address, eliminating the outside source distractors.

  257. Question 257 of 906An administrator must secure the WLC from receiving spoofed association requests. Which steps must be taken to configure the WLC to restrict the requests and force the user to wait 10 ms to retry an association request?

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    Correct answer: D. D. Enable the Protected Management Frame service and set the Comeback timer to 10.

    Protected Management Frames, or PMF, prevents spoofing of wireless association requests. Enabling this service activates the Comeback timer, which forces clients to wait a specified interval before retrying an association request.

  258. Question 258 of 906What is the role of SNMP in the network?

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    Correct answer: A. A. to monitor and manage network devices using a UDP underlay that operates on the application layer

    Simple Network Management Protocol operates at the application layer to monitor and manage network devices. It relies on UDP as its transport protocol, ruling out the TCP, SSL, and SSH distractors.

  259. Question 259 of 906Which physical component is distributed among multiple virtual machines running on the same hypervisor?

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    Correct answer: D. D. hardware resources

    A hypervisor abstracts physical hardware resources like CPU and memory, distributing them among multiple virtual machines. This resource sharing is the foundational concept of virtualization.

  260. Question 260 of 906What is a benefit of a point-to-point leased line?

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    Correct answer: C. C. simplicity of configuration

    A point-to-point leased line offers simplicity of configuration because it provides a direct, dedicated connection between two endpoints. This removes complex multipoint routing considerations, though costs are typically higher.

  261. Question 261 of 906A router running EIGRP has learned the same route from two different paths. Which parameter does the router use to select the best path?

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    Correct answer: C. C. metric

    When multiple routes are learned through the same routing protocol, the router uses the metric to select the best path. Administrative distance is the tie-breaker only when the same route is learned from two entirely different routing protocols.

  262. Question 262 of 906Which benefit does Cisco DNA Center provide over traditional campus management?

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    Correct answer: C. C. Cisco DNA Center leverages APIs, and traditional campus management requires manual data gathering.

    Cisco DNA Center provides programmability and automation through REST-based application programming interfaces. Traditional campus management relies heavily on manual command-line configuration and fragmented data collection, which the platform streamlines.

  263. Question 263 of 906You have two paths for the 10.10.10.0 network: one that has a feasible distance of 3072 and the other of 6144. What do you need to do to load balance your EIGRP routes?

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    Correct answer: C. C. Configure EIGRP variance to 2

    EIGRP uses the variance command to support unequal-cost load balancing. By configuring a variance of two, the router multiplies the best metric, allowing feasible successors with metrics up to that higher threshold to be installed in the routing table.

  264. Question 264 of 906By default, how does EIGRP determine the metric of a route for the routing table?

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    Correct answer: A. A. It uses the bandwidth and delay values of the path to calculate the route metric.

    By default, EIGRP calculates its composite metric using the minimum bandwidth and cumulative delay along the path. Other K-values that incorporate reliability and load are disabled by default, isolating bandwidth and delay as the primary factors.

  265. Question 265 of 906What occurs when PortFast is enabled on an interface that is connected to another switch?

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    Correct answer: D. D. Spanning-tree fails to detect a switching loop increasing the likelihood of broadcast storms.

    Enabling PortFast on a switch-to-switch link causes the port to bypass listening and learning states and immediately transition to forwarding. This bypasses normal spanning-tree protections, which increases the risk of catastrophic broadcast storms.

  266. Question 266 of 906An engineer must update the configuration on two PCs in two different subnets to communicate locally with each other. One PC is configured with IP address 192.168.25.128/25 and the other with 192.168.25.100/25. Which network mask must the engineer configure on both PCs to enable the communication?

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    Correct answer: C. C. 255.255.255.0

    Applying a 24-bit mask places both IP addresses in the same local subnet. Without a router routing traffic between subnets, hosts must share an identical subnet mask to communicate directly.

  267. Question 267 of 906Which device protects an internal network from the Internet?

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    Correct answer: B. B. firewall

    A firewall enforces security policies by inspecting and filtering traffic between trusted and untrusted networks. While routers can use access control lists, dedicated firewalls are designed specifically to protect internal networks from internet threats.

  268. Question 268 of 906Which 802.11 frame type is Association Response?

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    Correct answer: A. A. management

    The Association Response frame is defined as a management frame in the IEEE 802.11 standard. Management frames handle establishing and maintaining wireless communication, whereas control frames assist with delivery and data frames carry traffic.

  269. Question 269 of 906Which per-hop traffic-control feature does an ISP implement to mitigate the potential negative effects of a customer exceeding its committed bandwidth?

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    Correct answer: A. A. policing

    Traffic policing is typically implemented by an ISP at the network edge to enforce a customer's committed information rate. When traffic exceeds the contracted bandwidth, policing drops or remarks excess packets immediately.

  270. Question 270 of 906What is used to identify spurious DHCP servers?

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    Correct answer: C. C. DHCPOFFER

    A Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol Offer is sent by a server in response to a client's Discover message. If multiple Offer messages are received from different sources, it indicates the presence of a spurious rogue server on the network.

  271. Question 271 of 906What is a function of a northbound API in an SDN environment?

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    Correct answer: D. D. It provides orchestration and network automation services.

    A northbound Application Programming Interface provides the interface between the Software Defined Networking controller and higher-level applications. This interface enables programmability by exposing controller capabilities to external orchestration and automation services.

  272. Question 272 of 906What is a characteristic of cloud-based network topology?

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    Correct answer: D. D. services are provided by a public, private, or hybrid deployment

    Cloud-based network topologies deliver services through public, private, or hybrid cloud deployments. The other options describe on-premises physical hardware or specific access methods rather than true cloud deployment models.

  273. Question 273 of 906A company has decided to require multifactor authentication for all systems. Which set of parameters meets the requirement?

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    Correct answer: A. A. personal 10-digit PIN and RSA certificate

    Multifactor authentication requires combining two different factor categories, such as something you know and something you have. A personal identification number and a digital RSA certificate perfectly satisfy this requirement.

  274. Question 274 of 906In a CDP environment, what happens when the adjacent device interface connected to the local device does not have an IP address configured?

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    Correct answer: B. B. CDP can still operate and may advertise another IP address configured on the neighboring device

    Cisco Discovery Protocol operates at Layer 2 and does not require an IP address on the connected interface to function. If the neighboring device has another Layer 3 address configured elsewhere, the protocol can still advertise it.

  275. Question 275 of 906What differentiates the Cisco OfficeExtend AP mode from the Cisco FlexConnect AP mode?

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    Correct answer: A. A. OfficeExtend allows a personal SSID to be configured on the AP, and FlexConnect does not provide this capability

    OfficeExtend mode supports a personal SSID for teleworkers to separate home and corporate traffic. FlexConnect is designed for branch offices to locally switch traffic, but it does not provide this personal SSID capability.

  276. Question 276 of 906What is a function of spine-and-leaf architecture?

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    Correct answer: A. A. offers predictable latency of the traffic path between end devices

    Spine-and-leaf architecture provides predictable latency between endpoints because every leaf connects to every spine. This consistent hop count eliminates the variable latency found in traditional three-tier designs.

  277. Question 277 of 906Which function is performed by DHCP snooping?

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    Correct answer: B. B. filters and rate-limits DHCP messages on untrusted ports

    DHCP snooping filters DHCP messages and applies rate limits on untrusted ports to prevent rogue servers and starvation attacks. The other options describe unrelated functions like VLAN propagation or packet forwarding.

  278. Question 278 of 906An administrator must use the password complexity not manufacturer-name command to prevent users from adding Cisco as a password. Which command must be issued before this command?

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    Correct answer: C. C. password complexity enable

    The password complexity enable command must be issued first to activate password enforcement rules on a Cisco device. Only after this global feature is enabled can you configure specific restrictions like blocking manufacturer names.

  279. Question 279 of 906Which device feature limits the number of MAC addresses learned on a switch port?

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    Correct answer: A. A. Port security

    Port security is the feature used to restrict exactly how many MAC addresses can be dynamically learned or statically configured on a switch port. BPDU Guard and Dynamic ARP Inspection mitigate different threats but do not limit MAC address learning.

  280. Question 280 of 906What does an SDN controller use as a communication protocol to relay forwarding changes to a southbound API?

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    Correct answer: C. C. OpenFlow

    OpenFlow is the primary southbound protocol used by a software-defined networking controller to communicate directly with underlying infrastructure. While REST APIs are heavily used for northbound communication, OpenFlow specifically handles programming the data plane.

  281. Question 281 of 906What criteria is used first during the root port selection process?A. local port ID B. lowest path cost to the root bridge C. lowest neighbor's bridge ID D. lowest neighbor's port ID

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    Correct answer: B. B. lowest path cost to the toot bridge

    During root port selection, every non-root switch first looks for the path with the lowest total cost to the root bridge. Tiebreakers like the neighbor bridge ID are only evaluated when multiple paths share the exact same cumulative cost.

  282. Question 282 of 906Which command implies the use of SNMPv3?

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    Correct answer: A. A. snmp-server user

    The correct answer proves that SNMP version three relies on the User-based Security Model. The other commands are generic to older versions or merely enable notifications, whereas defining a specific user implies authentication and encryption.

  283. Question 283 of 906What is the authoritative source for an address lookup?

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    Correct answer: A. A. an authoritative DNS server

    The authoritative DNS server is the definitive source that holds the actual records for a specific domain. Local caches might provide previously resolved answers, but the authoritative server gives the final and trusted response.

  284. Question 284 of 906What is the advantage of separating the control plane from the data plane within an SDN network?

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    Correct answer: C. C. decreases overall network complexity

    Centralizing the control plane in software-defined networking decreases overall network complexity by allowing centralized management and consistent policy enforcement. Offloading virtual machines is a server concept, and cost reduction is a secondary benefit.

  285. Question 285 of 906Which switch technology establishes a network connection immediately when it is plugged in?

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    Correct answer: A. A. PortFast

    PortFast allows an access port to bypass the listening and learning states, transitioning immediately to forwarding. BackboneFast and UplinkFast handle indirect and direct link failures, not initial device connections.

  286. Question 286 of 906Which factor must be considered during the implementation of an IPsec VPN?

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    Correct answer: A. A. In IPsec tunnel mode, the entire original IP datagram is encrypted.

    In IPsec tunnel mode, the entire original IP packet is encapsulated and encrypted. Transport mode only encrypts the payload, making the other options incorrect for site-to-site VPN design.

  287. Question 287 of 906Which interface enables communication between a program on the controller and a program on the networking device?

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    Correct answer: D. D. southbound interface

    The southbound interface enables communication between the SDN controller and network devices to program forwarding behavior. Northbound interfaces connect the controller to upper-level applications and management programs.

  288. Question 288 of 906Which value is used to determine the active router in an HSRP default configuration?

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    Correct answer: B. B. Router IP address

    HSRP default elections are decided by the highest IP address because all routers share the default priority of one hundred. If priorities are manually changed, the highest priority wins.

  289. Question 289 of 906An engineering team asks an implementer to configure syslog to ensure that notification messages and all higher-severity messages are sent to the syslog server. Which command should be configured?

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    Correct answer: A. A. logging trap 5

    Syslog severity level five includes notification messages and all higher-severity levels down to zero. The logging trap command sets this threshold, ensuring warnings, errors, and emergencies are forwarded to the server.

  290. Question 290 of 906What is a reason why a company would choose to use network automation in an enterprise?

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    Correct answer: A. A. Provide data services faster.

    Network automation deploys configurations and provisions services faster by reducing manual intervention and repetitive tasks. While other options provide technical features, accelerating service delivery is the primary business driver for adopting automation.

  291. Question 291 of 906How do TCP and UDP fit into a query-response model?

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    Correct answer: B. B. TCP establishes a connection prior to sending data, and UDP sends immediately

    Transmission Control Protocol establishes a session using a three-way handshake before sending data, whereas User Datagram Protocol sends data immediately without a connection. This connection state difference distinguishes reliable from best-effort delivery.

  292. Question 292 of 906Which characteristic of 802.11a makes it preferable in environments requiring reduced interference and more available channels?

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    Correct answer: D. D. It is used in place of 802.11b/g when many nonoverlapping channels are required

    The 802.11a standard operates in the 5 GHz band, providing significantly more non-overlapping channels than 2.4 GHz. The 2.4 GHz band is highly susceptible to interference from common devices like microwaves.

  293. Question 293 of 906Two switches have been implemented and all interfaces are at the default configuration level. A trunk link must be implemented between two switches with these requirements: • using an industry-standard trunking protocol • permitting VLANs 1-10 and denying other VLANs How must the interconnecting ports be configured?

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    Correct answer: C. C. switchport mode trunk switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport trunk allowed vlans 1-10

    The switchport mode trunk command combined with dot1q encapsulation meets the industry-standard requirement. The trunk allowed vlans command restricts traffic to the specified VLANs, filtering the rest.

  294. Question 294 of 906What is the default behavior of a Layer 2 switch when a frame with an unknown destination MAC address is received?

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    Correct answer: C. C. The Layer 2 switch floods packets to all ports except the receiving port in the given VLAN.

    When a switch receives a frame with an unknown unicast destination MAC, it floods the frame to all ports in the same VLAN except the receiving port. This ensures the frame reaches its intended destination if it exists on the local segment.

  295. Question 295 of 906Which command configures the Cisco WLC to prevent a serial session with the WLC CLI from being automatically logged out?

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    Correct answer: C. C. config serial timeout 0

    The command config serial timeout zero disables the inactivity timeout for the console session on a wireless LAN controller. This configuration prevents the system from automatically logging out a connected serial user.

  296. Question 296 of 906Why was the RFC 1918 address space defined?

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    Correct answer: A. A. conserve public IPv4 addressing

    RFC 1918 defined private IPv4 address ranges to conserve public IPv4 addressing. By allowing organizations to reuse internal addresses that are not routed on the internet, global public IPv4 consumption was significantly reduced.

  297. Question 297 of 906What is the purpose of classifying network traffic in QoS?

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    Correct answer: C. C. identifies the type of traffic that will receive a particular treatment

    The purpose of classifying network traffic in Quality of Service is to identify the type of traffic so that it can receive the appropriate treatment like priority queuing. The distractors incorrectly describe the subsequent steps of matching, servicing, and marking.

  298. Question 298 of 906An email user has been lured into clicking a link in an email sent by their company's security organization. The webpage that opens reports that it was safe, but the link may have contained malicious code. Which type of security program is in place?

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    Correct answer: A. A. user awareness

    This scenario describes a user awareness program where the company intentionally sends simulated phishing links. These programs are designed to train employees to recognize potentially malicious emails and improve security behavior without causing real harm.

  299. Question 299 of 906Which type of cable is typically used to connect a switch to a router Ethernet interface (without auto-MDIX)?

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    Correct answer: B. B. Straight-through

    A router Ethernet port and a switch port traditionally use opposite transmit and receive pin pairs. Therefore, a straight-through cable is required to connect them when automatic medium-dependent interface crossover is not in play.

  300. Question 300 of 906Which concern is addressed with the use of private IPv4 addressing?

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    Correct answer: D. D. Lack of available publicly routable unique IPv4 address

    Private IPv4 addressing was defined to solve the shortage of publicly routable unique IPv4 addresses. By allowing internal address reuse, organizations conserve their limited public IP space. Options mentioning IPv5 or security protocols are invalid distractors.

  301. Question 301 of 906What is a feature of WPA?

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    Correct answer: A. A. TKIP/MIC encryption

    Temporal Key Integrity Protocol and Message Integrity Check encryption are core features of WPA, designed to replace vulnerable WEP encryption. Preshared keys are a WPA mode, not a structural feature, while eighty-two point one x applies to enterprise security.

  302. Question 302 of 906An engineer must establish a trunk link between two switches. The neighboring switch is set to trunk or desirable mode. What action should be taken?

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    Correct answer: C. C. configure switchport mode dynamic auto

    Configuring switchport mode dynamic auto allows a switch port to become a trunk if the neighboring switch is actively set to trunk or desirable mode. Dynamic auto will never actively initiate trunk negotiations, relying entirely on the neighbor to start the process.

  303. Question 303 of 906What is a characteristic of Link Aggregation (LAG) operation on a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?

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    Correct answer: D. D. One functional physical port is needed to pass client traffic.

    When link aggregation is enabled on a wireless controller, only one functional physical port is required to pass client traffic. The other options present strict configuration requirements or bandwidth limitations that do not exist.

  304. Question 304 of 906Which IPsec mode encrypts only the payload while leaving the original IP header (source and destination IP addresses) unencrypted?

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    Correct answer: C. C. Transport

    IPsec transport mode encrypts only the payload of an IP packet, leaving the original header intact. Tunnel mode encapsulates the entire original packet and adds a new IP header.

  305. Question 305 of 906What is a practice that protects a network from VLAN hopping attacks?

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    Correct answer: C. C. Assign all access ports to VLANs other than the native VLAN

    Placing access ports in a voice or data VLAN separate from the native VLAN mitigates double-tagged VLAN hopping attacks. Dynamic ARP inspection specifically prevents spoofing attacks rather than VLAN hopping manipulations.

  306. Question 306 of 906Which command enables all access ports connected to end devices to enter the forwarding state immediately?

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    Correct answer: A. A. switch(config)#spanning-tree portfast default

    The spanning-tree portfast default command globally enables PortFast on all access ports, allowing them to bypass listening and learning states. Option B only configures BPDU Guard, while the interface-level commands in C and D do not apply the global setting required.

  307. Question 307 of 906PC1 tries to send traffic to newly installed PC2. The PC2 MAC address is not listed in the MAC address table of the switch, so the switch sends the packet to all ports in the same VLAN. Which switching concept does this describe?

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    Correct answer: A. A. frame flooding

    When a switch receives a frame with an unknown destination MAC address, it forwards that frame out all ports within the same VLAN except the receiving port. This process is known as unknown unicast flooding, or simply frame flooding.

  308. Question 308 of 906How does a switch perform MAC address learning?

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    Correct answer: A. A. It records the source MAC address of incoming frames and associates it with the ingress port.

    A switch dynamically builds its MAC address table by examining the source MAC address of incoming frames. It then maps that source address to the specific ingress port, allowing the switch to intelligently forward future traffic.

  309. Question 309 of 906Which security method is used to prevent man-in-the-middle attacks?

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    Correct answer: A. A. authentication

    Authentication verifies the identity of communicating parties, preventing attackers from successfully impersonating a legitimate endpoint in a man-in-the-middle attack. Authorization, anti-replay, and accounting are secondary controls that assume identity has already been established.

  310. Question 310 of 906What can prevent a workstation from receiving a DHCP address during initial network connection?

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    Correct answer: A. A. STP

    Spanning Tree Protocol can delay a workstation from receiving a DHCP address while a switch port transitions through listening and learning states. Configuring PortFast on access ports bypasses this delay.

  311. Question 311 of 906What event has occurred if a router sends a notice level message to a syslog server?

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    Correct answer: B. B. An interface line has changed status

    Syslog notice level corresponds to severity level five, which typically captures significant but normal operational events like an interface line changing status. Lower severity numbers denote more critical system emergencies that require immediate administrative intervention.

  312. Question 312 of 906Which protocol is commonly used as a southbound interface to push configuration changes to network devices over SSH?

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    Correct answer: A. A. NETCONF

    NETCONF is a network management protocol that uses remote procedure calls to push configuration changes over a secure SSH session. RESTCONF would be the alternative option, but it operates over standard HTTP methods instead of SSH.

  313. Question 313 of 906Which signal frequency appears 60 times per minute?

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    Correct answer: A. A. 1 Hz signal

    A one hertz signal completes one cycle per second, resulting in exactly sixty cycles over a full minute. Higher frequencies complete millions or billions of cycles, making them incorrect for this basic networking math concept.

  314. Question 314 of 906In what way does a network supervisor reduce maintenance costs while maintaining network integrity on a traditionally managed network?

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    Correct answer: C. C. They use automation to centralize network-management tasks.

    Using automation to centralize traditional network-management tasks drastically reduces repetitive manual configurations and minimizes human error. Simply installing monitoring software or adding personnel does not inherently streamline the actual maintenance operations.

  315. Question 315 of 906What software-defined architecture plane assists network devices with making packet-forwarding decisions by providing Layer 2 reachability and Layer 3 routing information?

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    Correct answer: B. B. control plane

    The control plane builds the routing and MAC tables that feed the data plane. Avoid choosing the data plane, because it only forwards traffic based on those precomputed tables.

  316. Question 316 of 906Which WAN topology has the highest degree of reliability?

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    Correct answer: C. C. full mesh

    A full mesh topology provides multiple redundant paths between all sites by directly connecting every node. This ensures maximum reliability because traffic can immediately reroute if a single link fails.

  317. Question 317 of 906Which command must be entered when a device is configured as an NTP server?

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    Correct answer: B. B. ntp master

    The NTP master command configures a device to act as an authoritative NTP server. This allows it to provide time synchronization to other network clients even without an external clock source.

  318. Question 318 of 906Which technology must be implemented to configure network device monitoring with the highest security?

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    Correct answer: D. D. SNMPv3

    Simple Network Management Protocol version three provides authentication and encryption features. This offers the highest security for device monitoring by protecting the confidentiality and integrity of management traffic.

  319. Question 319 of 906Which command is used to display the collection of OSPF link states?

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    Correct answer: D. D. show ip ospf database

    The show ip ospf database command displays the OSPF link-state database. This proves the correct answer because it lists all link-state advertisements known to the router.

  320. Question 320 of 906An engineer verifies that an OSPF neighbor is acting as the designated router on a broadcast network. Which OSPF neighbor state confirms that a full adjacency has been formed with that router?

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    Correct answer: D. D. Full

    The Full state confirms that OSPF routers have fully synchronized their link-state databases. The 2-way state only indicates neighbor discovery and is used between non-designated routers.

  321. Question 321 of 906What happens when a switch receives a frame with a destination MAC address that recently aged out?

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    Correct answer: B. B. The switch floods the frame to all ports in the VLAN except the port that received the frame.

    When a destination MAC address ages out of the CAM table, the switch loses the forwarding entry and treats the frame as unknown unicast. It floods the frame to all ports within the same VLAN except the ingress port.

  322. Question 322 of 906What is the difference between AAA authentication and authorization?

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    Correct answer: A. A. Authentication identifies and verifies a user who is attempting to access a system, and authorization controls the tasks the user performs.

    Authentication proves identity, while authorization defines permitted actions for verified users. Incorrect options confuse accounting with authorization or mix password validation tasks incorrectly.

  323. Question 323 of 906What is the role of the root port in a switched network?

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    Correct answer: C. C. It is the best path to the root from a nonroot switch.

    In spanning tree protocol, the root port on a nonroot switch provides the lowest cost path to the root bridge. The root port is actively forwarding, which eliminates failover or disabled options.

  324. Question 324 of 906A user configured OSPF in a single area between two routers. A serial interface connecting R1 and R2 is running encapsulation PPP. By default, which OSPF network type is seen on this interface when the user types show ip ospf interface on R1 or R2?

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    Correct answer: B. B. point-to-point

    OSPF defaults to the point-to-point network type on serial interfaces using PPP encapsulation. This network type skips the DR and BDR election process, which eliminates the broadcast and nonbroadcast options.

  325. Question 325 of 906When a switch receives a frame from an unknown source MAC address, which action does the switch take with the frame?

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    Correct answer: C. C. It associates the source MAC address with the LAN port on which it was received and saves it to the MAC address table.

    Switches dynamically learn MAC addresses by examining incoming frames. The switch records the source MAC address and ingress port in the MAC address table, allowing future frames destined for that address to be forwarded.

  326. Question 326 of 906Which command is used to enable LLDP globally on a Cisco IOS ISR?

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    Correct answer: A. A. lldp run

    The command lldp run is entered in global configuration mode to enable Link Layer Discovery Protocol globally on a Cisco device. The other commands either apply to CDP or are used for specific interface-level configurations.

  327. Question 327 of 906Which command must be entered to configure a DHCP relay?

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    Correct answer: D. D. ip helper-address

    The ip helper-address command is configured on a router interface to forward local DHCP broadcast messages to a remote server. The ip dhcp pool command creates a local server, while the other options do not provide relay functionality.

  328. Question 328 of 906Which attribute does a router use to select the best path when two or more different routes to the same destination exist from two different routing protocols?

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    Correct answer: C. C. administrative distance

    A router uses administrative distance to select the best path when multiple routing protocols advertise the same destination. The metric only breaks ties within the same routing protocol, not across different sources.

  329. Question 329 of 906What is a benefit of using a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?

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    Correct answer: A. A. It eliminates the need to configure each access point individually.

    A wireless LAN controller eliminates the need to configure each lightweight access point individually by providing centralized management. The controller does not manage autonomous access points in this architecture.

  330. Question 330 of 906Which MAC address is recognized as a VRRP virtual address?

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    Correct answer: A. A. 0000.5E00.010a

    Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol uses a standardized MAC address prefix of 0000.5E00.01, with the last byte representing the group number. Option A matches this pattern exactly, while the others belong to HSRP or other protocols.

  331. Question 331 of 906R1 has learned route 10.10.10.0/24 via numerous routing protocols. Which route is installed?

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    Correct answer: C. C. route with the lowest administrative distance

    When a router learns the exact same network from multiple routing protocols, it selects the route with the lowest administrative distance. Metrics like cost or hop count only compare paths learned from a single routing protocol.

  332. Question 332 of 906When deploying syslog, which severity level logs informational messages?

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    Correct answer: D. D. 6

    Syslog severity level six corresponds to informational messages, which provide routine operational data about the system. Lower levels like zero or two represent much more critical emergencies and warnings.

  333. Question 333 of 906In which way does a spine-and-leaf architecture allow for scalability in a network when additional access ports are required?

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    Correct answer: C. C. A leaf switch can be added with connections to every spine switch.

    A spine-and-leaf architecture scales horizontally by adding a leaf switch that connects to every spine switch. This maintains consistent latency and equal-cost multipath routing while avoiding the bottleneck of adding spines.

  334. Question 334 of 906Which networking function occurs on the data plane?

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    Correct answer: D. D. forwarding remote client/server traffic

    The data plane is responsible for forwarding actual user traffic between interfaces based on routing and MAC tables. Control plane processes like SSH, OSPF hellos, and spanning-tree elections manage the router state.

  335. Question 335 of 906What provides centralized control of authentication and roaming in an enterprise network?

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    Correct answer: B. B. a wireless LAN controller

    A wireless LAN controller provides centralized management of authentication, security policies, and client roaming across multiple lightweight access points. Lightweight APs handle the radio frequency but rely on the controller.

  336. Question 336 of 906R1 has learned route 192.168.12.0/24 via OSPF, RIP, and Internal EIGRP. Under normal operating conditions, which routing protocol is installed in the routing table?

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    Correct answer: B. B. Internal EIGRP

    When multiple routing protocols learn the same route, the router installs the route with the lowest administrative distance. Internal EIGRP has a default AD of 90, beating OSPF at 110 and RIP at 120.

  337. Question 337 of 906Which authentication method requires the user to provide a physical attribute to authenticate successfully?

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    Correct answer: A. A. biometric

    Biometric authentication requires a physical characteristic such as a fingerprint or retina scan. This represents the something you are authentication factor. Multifactor combines several methods rather than relying on a physical trait.

  338. Question 338 of 906What is a function of a firewall on an enterprise network?

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    Correct answer: A. A. It allows and denies ingress and egress traffic.

    A firewall enforces security policies by explicitly allowing or denying inbound and outbound traffic. Modern firewalls typically use stateful inspection, which eliminates the stateless option, and they do not act as default gateways.

  339. Question 339 of 906Which script paradigm does Puppet use?

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    Correct answer: D. D. manifests and modules

    Puppet relies on manifests and modules to enforce configuration state. You can eliminate Chef and Ansible traps, because they use cookbooks and playbooks respectively.

  340. Question 340 of 906When deploying a new network that includes both Cisco and third-party network devices, which redundancy protocol avoids the interruption of network traffic if the default gateway router fails?

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    Correct answer: A. A. VRRP

    VRRP is the open standard protocol that ensures traffic continues if the default gateway fails. You must eliminate HSRP and GLBP, because those are Cisco proprietary protocols.

  341. Question 341 of 906What is a function performed by a web server?

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    Correct answer: D. D. provide an application that is transmitted over HTTP

    A web server hosts and delivers web applications or content to clients using HTTP. The other options describe email, FTP, and authentication servers, which serve completely different primary purposes.

  342. Question 342 of 906An engineer has configured the domain name, user name, and password on the local router. What is the next step to complete the configuration for a Secure Shell access RSA key?

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    Correct answer: B. B. crypto key generate rsa

    The crypto key generate rsa command is used to generate the RSA key pair required for SSH on a Cisco device. SSH relies on these keys for encryption and secure remote access.

  343. Question 343 of 906What condition commonly causes a switch port to enter the err-disabled state?

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    Correct answer: B. B. a port security violation

    A port security violation places a port into an err-disabled state to protect the network. Avoid choosing shutdown, because an administrator issues that command rather than the switch.

  344. Question 344 of 906Network security team noticed that an increasing number of employees are becoming victims of phishing attacks. Which security program should be implemented to mitigate the problem?

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    Correct answer: D. D. user awareness training

    User awareness training directly addresses the human factor exploited in phishing attacks. Technical controls like software firewalls or email patches cannot fully mitigate a user willingly clicking a malicious link.

  345. Question 345 of 906When an access point is seeking to join a wireless LAN controller, which message is sent to the AP-Manager interface?

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    Correct answer: A. A. Discovery response

    When an access point attempts to join a controller, it first sends a CAPWAP discovery request. The controller then replies from its AP-manager interface with a discovery response.

  346. Question 346 of 906How does STP prevent forwarding loops at OSI Layer 2?

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    Correct answer: D. D. Port blocking

    Spanning Tree Protocol prevents Layer 2 loops by placing redundant switch ports into a blocking state. This ensures only one active forwarding path exists between network segments, preventing continuous frame circulation.

  347. Question 347 of 906You have configured a router with an OSPF router ID, but its IP address still reflects the physical interface. Which action can you take to correct the problem in the least disruptive way?

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    Correct answer: A. A. Reload the OSPF process

    The Open Shortest Path First process selects its router ID only when the process starts. Clearing the OSPF process forces it to restart and apply the new router ID with minimal network disruption.

  348. Question 348 of 906Which type of traffic is sent with pure IPsec?

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    Correct answer: C. C. unicast messages from a host at a remote site to a server at headquarters

    Pure IPsec operates at Layer 3 and is designed to encrypt unicast traffic between endpoints. It does not natively support broadcast or multicast traffic without additional encapsulation like GRE.

  349. Question 349 of 906Why does a switch flood a frame to all ports?

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    Correct answer: B. B. The destination MAC address of the frame is unknown.

    A switch floods unknown unicast frames when the destination MAC address is not in the MAC address table. An unknown source address triggers learning, not flooding, which eliminates that trap.

  350. Question 350 of 906Which action protects a network from VLAN hopping attacks?

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    Correct answer: B. B. Change the native VLAN to an unused VLAN ID.

    Changing the native VLAN to an unused ID mitigates double-tagging VLAN hopping attacks. Dynamic ARP inspection combats ARP spoofing, and ACLs do not inherently prevent this layer two exploit.

  351. Question 351 of 906What is the temporary state that switch ports always enter immediately after the boot process when Rapid PVST+ is used?

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    Correct answer: D. D. discarding

    Rapid PVST+ ports initially enter the discarding state to prevent loops during convergence. Listening is a legacy spanning-tree state, while learning only records MAC addresses before forwarding.

  352. Question 352 of 906Which command gives the switch the best chance to become the root bridge for VLAN 200 in Rapid PVST+?

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    Correct answer: B. B. spanning-tree vlan 200 priority 0

    Configuring the spanning-tree priority to zero forces the lowest bridge ID, maximizing the chance of becoming root. The root primary command is valid but dynamically sets a value, making zero the absolute lowest priority.

  353. Question 353 of 906Which type of API allows SDN controllers to dynamically make changes to the network?

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    Correct answer: D. D. southbound API

    Southbound APIs let the SDN controller communicate down to network devices to update forwarding tables. Northbound APIs handle communication between the controller and higher-level management applications.

  354. Question 354 of 906Which technology allows for multiple operating systems to be run on a single host computer?

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    Correct answer: D. D. server virtualization

    Server virtualization uses a hypervisor to enable multiple operating systems to run simultaneously on a single physical host. Each virtual machine operates independently while sharing the underlying hardware resources.

  355. Question 355 of 906What is an Ansible inventory?

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    Correct answer: B. B. file that defines the target devices upon which commands and tasks are executed

    An Ansible inventory is a file that defines the managed hosts and groups where tasks are executed. This list specifies target devices by IP address or hostname, ensuring playbooks apply to the correct infrastructure.

  356. Question 356 of 906How does MAC learning function?

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    Correct answer: A. A. adds unknown source MAC addresses to the CAM table

    MAC learning occurs when a switch examines the source MAC address of an incoming frame and adds it to the CAM table. This process maps the address to the ingress port, allowing the switch to forward future traffic efficiently.

  357. Question 357 of 906Which purpose does a northbound API serve in a controller-based networking architecture?

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    Correct answer: A. A. facilitates communication between the controller and the applications

    A northbound API facilitates communication between the SDN controller and high-level network applications. This abstraction allows applications to request network services programmatically without interacting directly with the underlying physical hardware.

  358. Question 358 of 906What is the purpose of a southbound API in a controller-based networking architecture?

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    Correct answer: D. D. facilitates communication between the controller and the networking hardware

    A southbound API facilitates communication between the SDN controller and the underlying networking hardware. Northbound APIs are the trap here, as they handle communication between the controller and applications or orchestration tools.

  359. Question 359 of 906What is the destination MAC address of a broadcast frame?

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    Correct answer: B. B. ff:ff:ff:ff:ff:ff

    The Ethernet broadcast MAC address is ff:ff:ff:ff:ff:ff, which in binary is all ones. Frames sent to this address are flooded to all devices within the same broadcast domain.

  360. Question 360 of 906Which command must you enter to guarantee that an HSRP router with higher priority becomes the HSRP primary router after it is reloaded?

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    Correct answer: A. A. standby 10 preempt

    The standby preempt command allows a router with a higher HSRP priority to automatically reclaim the active role after recovering from a reload. Without preemption, the original active router retains the role regardless of priority.

  361. Question 361 of 906A Cisco IP phone receives untagged data traffic from an attached PC. Which action is taken by the phone?

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    Correct answer: B. B. It allows the traffic to pass through unchanged.

    The IP phone forwards untagged data traffic from the PC unchanged toward the switch. The switch applies its configured access VLAN to this untagged traffic, while the phone places its own voice traffic on a separate tagged voice VLAN.

  362. Question 362 of 906A network engineer must configure an interface with IP address 10.10.10.145 and a subnet mask equivalent to 11111111.11111111.11111111.11111000. Which subnet mask must the engineer use?

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    Correct answer: A. A. /29

    The binary subnet mask provided contains 29 consecutive ones, which corresponds to a slash 29 prefix length. Counting the network bits directly translates the binary mask into the correct CIDR notation.

  363. Question 363 of 906A user configured OSPF and advertised the Gigabit Ethernet interface in OSPF. By default, to which type of OSPF network does this interface belong?

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    Correct answer: C. C. broadcast

    Gigabit Ethernet is a multiaccess technology, so OSPF treats it as a broadcast network by default. This default behavior triggers designated router and backup designated router elections to reduce LSA flooding on the segment.

  364. Question 364 of 906A router has three routes in its routing table: 10.0.0.0/8, 10.0.0.0/16, and 10.0.0.0/24. If a packet is destined for 10.0.0.22, which route will the router use to forward the packet?

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    Correct answer: C. C. 10.0.0.0/24

    Routers use the longest prefix match rule to forward packets toward their destination. The slash twenty four route is the most specific match, effectively eliminating the broader slash eight and slash sixteen options.

  365. Question 365 of 906A manager asks a network engineer to advise which cloud service models are used so employees do not have to waste their time installing, managing, and updating software that is only used occasionally. Which cloud service model does the engineer recommend?

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    Correct answer: D. D. software-as-a-service

    Software as a Service delivers fully managed applications over the internet, completely offloading installation and updates from local employees. Infrastructure and Platform as a Service are incorrect because they still require the customer to manage operating systems or applications.

  366. Question 366 of 906How must a switch interface be configured when an AP is in FlexConnect mode?

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    Correct answer: D. D. trunk port

    A FlexConnect access point locally switches client traffic for multiple VLANs at a branch site. The switch port must be a trunk to pass tagged traffic, unlike local mode which uses an access port.

  367. Question 367 of 906Which action must be taken when password protection is implemented?

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    Correct answer: B. B. Include special characters and make passwords as long as allowed.

    Maximizing password length and including special characters increases entropy and improves security. Incorrect options suggesting short passwords or insecure storage practices violate fundamental access control principles.

  368. Question 368 of 906Router A learns the same route from two different neighbors; one of the neighbor routers is an OSPF neighbor, and the other is an EIGRP neighbor. What is the administrative distance of the route that will be installed in the routing table?

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    Correct answer: B. B. 90

    The route with the lowest administrative distance is preferred, and internal EIGRP has a default distance of 90. OSPF defaults to 110, so the EIGRP route is installed in the routing table.

  369. Question 369 of 906Which cable type must be used when connecting two like devices together using these criteria? • Pins 1 to 3 and 2 to 6 are required. • Auto detection MDI-X is unavailable.

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    Correct answer: C. C. crossover

    When auto MDI-X is unavailable, a crossover cable connects two like devices by crossing transmit and receive pairs. The pinout maps one to three and two to six, matching the criteria.

  370. Question 370 of 906When a switch receives a frame for an unknown destination MAC address, how is the frame handled?

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    Correct answer: A. A. flooded to all ports except the origination port

    When a switch receives an unknown unicast frame, it floods the frame out all active ports in the same VLAN except the receiving port. True broadcast implies a broadcast address, and dropping breaks Layer 2 connectivity.

  371. Question 371 of 906What is an advantage of Cisco DNA Center versus traditional campus device management?

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    Correct answer: D. D. It enables easy autodiscovery of network elements in a brownfield deployment.

    Cisco DNA Center simplifies brownfield deployments by automatically discovering and inventorying existing network devices. Traditional device management requires manual intervention, eliminating the manual configuration distractors.

  372. Question 372 of 906What is a function of an endpoint?

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    Correct answer: D. D. It is used directly by an individual user to access network services.

    An endpoint is a device like a computer or phone used directly by an end user to access network services. Routers and switches are excluded because they forward traffic rather than originating user sessions.

  373. Question 373 of 906How do AAA operations compare regarding user identification, user services, and access control?

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    Correct answer: B. B. Authentication identifies users, and accounting tracks user services

    Authentication proves user identity, while accounting tracks user services and activity. Authorization is eliminated because it enforces access control rather than tracking or identifying.

  374. Question 374 of 906What is the function of a controller in controller-based networking?

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    Correct answer: A. A. It serves as the centralized management point of an SDN architecture

    In controller-based networking, the controller acts as the centralized management point of an SDN architecture. It centralizes the control plane, not the data plane, and is software rather than a router line card.

  375. Question 375 of 906Which group of channels in the 2.4 GHz frequency band are non-overlapping channels?

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    Correct answer: B. B. channels 1, 6, and 11

    Channels 1, 6, and 11 are the only non-overlapping channels in the 2.4 GHz band. They are separated by enough frequency spacing to avoid interference, whereas other channel combinations overlap.

  376. Question 376 of 906What provides connection redundancy, increased bandwidth, and load sharing between a wireless LAN controller and a Layer 2 switch?

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    Correct answer: D. D. link aggregation

    Link aggregation combines multiple physical links into a single logical connection, providing redundancy and load sharing. VLAN trunking and first hop redundancy do not inherently increase bandwidth.

  377. Question 377 of 906What is a functionality of the control plane in the network?

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    Correct answer: C. C. It exchanges topology information with other routers.

    The control plane builds the routing table by exchanging topology information with other routers using routing protocols. Forwarding traffic and looking up interfaces are data plane functions, not control plane.

  378. Question 378 of 906An on-site service desk technician must verify the IP address and DNS server information on a user's Windows computer. Which command must the technician enter at the command prompt on the user's computer?

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    Correct answer: B. B. ipconfig /all

    The ipconfig command with the all switch displays full IP configuration details, including DNS servers, on Windows. Show interface and ifconfig are used on Cisco devices and Linux respectively, not Windows.

  379. Question 379 of 906Which characteristic differentiates the concept of authentication from authorization and accounting?

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    Correct answer: B. B. identity verification

    Authentication validates user identity. Authorization, accounting, and other concepts like logging or billing are related but distinct. Eliminate options focused on permissions, tracking, or billing to select the proper verification mechanism.

  380. Question 380 of 906Which JSON data type is an unordered set of attribute-value pairs?

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    Correct answer: D. D. object

    A JSON object consists of an unordered collection of attribute-value pairs enclosed in curly braces. Arrays are ordered, strings represent text, and Booleans represent truth values.

  381. Question 381 of 906A router has two static routes to the same destination network, each with a different next-hop address. If both routes have the same administrative distance and metric, how will the router forward packets?

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    Correct answer: D. D. The router load-balances traffic over all routes to the destination.

    When a router installs multiple routes to the same destination with identical administrative distances and metrics, it performs equal-cost load balancing across the available paths. The router does not select a path based on arbitrary criteria like the oldest age or lowest IP address.

  382. Question 382 of 906A network engineer must configure an access list on a new Cisco IOS router. The access list must deny HTTP traffic to network 10.125.128.32/27 from the 192.168.240.0/20 network, but it must allow the 192.168.240.0/20 network to reach the rest of the 10.0.0.0/8 network. Which configuration must the engineer apply?

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    Correct answer: B. B. ip access-list extended deny_outbound 10 deny tcp 192.168.240.0 0.0.15.255 10.125.128.32 0.0.0.31 eq 80 20 permit ip 192.168.240.0 0.0.15.255 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 30 deny ip any any log

    Extended access lists must be ordered from most specific to least specific to prevent unwanted traffic from being permitted. Option B correctly denies port 80 traffic first, allows the broader network range, applies accurate wildcard masks, and uses an implicit deny rule.

  383. Question 383 of 906What is the primary purpose of a First Hop Redundancy Protocol?

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    Correct answer: D. D. It reduces routing failures by allowing more than one router to represent itself as the default gateway of a network

    First Hop Redundancy Protocols provide default gateway resilience by allowing multiple physical routers to share a single virtual IP and MAC address. If the active router fails, the standby takes over seamlessly, eliminating single points of failure.

  384. Question 384 of 906If a switch port receives a new frame while it is actively transmitting a previous frame, how does it process the frames?

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    Correct answer: C. C. The new frame is placed in a queue for transmission after the previous frame

    Switch ports use memory buffers to hold outbound frames in a queue. If a frame arrives while the port is busy transmitting, the switch stores the new frame temporarily instead of dropping it, sending it once the current transmission finishes.

  385. Question 385 of 906Which 802.11 management frame type is sent when a client roams between access points on the same SSID?

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    Correct answer: A. A. Reassociation Request

    A wireless client sends a Reassociation Request frame when moving to a new access point within the same extended service set. Standard association frames are only for initial connections, whereas reassociation specifically handles the roaming transition.

  386. Question 386 of 906What is a function of TFTP in network operations?

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    Correct answer: A. A. transfers IOS images from a server to a router for firmware upgrades

    Trivial File Transfer Protocol is commonly used to transfer IOS images and configuration files without requiring authentication. Options mentioning passwords or local file system transfers are incorrect because TFTP relies on simple UDP file transfers.

  387. Question 387 of 906Which role does a hypervisor provide for each virtual machine in server virtualization?

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    Correct answer: C. C. control and distribution of physical resources

    A hypervisor provides control and distribution of physical resources like CPU and memory to virtual machines. Software as a service and infrastructure as a service refer to cloud computing delivery models, not hypervisor functions.

  388. Question 388 of 906Which QoS profile is selected in the GUI when configuring a voice over WLAN deployment?

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    Correct answer: A. A. Platinum

    The Platinum QoS profile is used for voice traffic in Cisco wireless deployments to ensure strict prioritization. Bronze, silver, and gold profiles are intended for lower priority background traffic or standard data applications.

  389. Question 389 of 906Which type of hypervisor operates without an underlying OS to host virtual machines?

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    Correct answer: A. A. Type 1

    A Type 1 hypervisor, also known as a bare-metal hypervisor, runs directly on the host's hardware to manage virtual machines. Type 2 hypervisors require a host operating system, making them incorrect.

  390. Question 390 of 906A network engineer is installing an IPv6-only capable device. The client has requested that the device IP address be reachable only from the internal network. Which type of IPv6 address must the engineer assign?

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    Correct answer: B. B. unique local address

    A unique local address is intended for internal communication and is not routed on the public internet. Link-local addresses are also internal but cannot route across subnets, making unique local the correct choice.

  391. Question 391 of 906Which type of security program is violated when a group of employees enters a building using the ID badge of only one person?

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    Correct answer: C. C. physical access control

    Physical access control manages and restricts entry to physical locations like buildings or server rooms. Sharing an ID badge violates individual accountability and defeats the authentication mechanisms at the door.

  392. Question 392 of 906Which port state processes BPDUs, but does not forward packets or update the address database in Rapid PVST+?

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    Correct answer: A. A. blocking

    Rapid PVST+ uses the blocking or discarding state to process BPDUs without forwarding data or learning MAC addresses. Listening is a legacy STP state, while learning updates the MAC table.

  393. Question 393 of 906An engineer is configuring a switch port that is connected to a VoIP handset. Which command must the engineer configure to enable port security with a manually assigned MAC address of abcd.abcd.abcd on voice VLAN 4?

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    Correct answer: A. A. switchport port-security mac-address abcd.abcd.abcd

    Port security is applied per interface rather than per VLAN. If a voice VLAN is configured, the switch automatically separates voice and data traffic. You simply specify the MAC address in the command without a VLAN keyword.

  394. Question 394 of 906What is one reason to implement LAG on a Cisco WLC?

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    Correct answer: C. C. to provide link redundancy and load balancing

    Link Aggregation on a Wireless LAN Controller bundles multiple physical interfaces into one logical path. This provides redundancy and load balancing. If one link fails, traffic continues over the remaining active links.

  395. Question 395 of 906When the LAG configuration is updated on a Cisco WLC, which additional task must be performed when changes are complete?

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    Correct answer: A. A. Reboot the WLC.

    Modifying Link Aggregation changes how the controller internally bundles its interfaces. The system must reboot to properly initialize the new architecture. No manual MAC flushing or access point reassociation is required.

  396. Question 396 of 906A network administrator enabled port security on a switch interface connected to a printer. What is the next configuration action in order to allow the port to learn the MAC address of the printer and insert it into the table automatically?

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    Correct answer: C. C. enable sticky MAC addressing

    Sticky MAC addressing allows a switch port to dynamically learn a MAC address and automatically save it to the running configuration. This secures the port without the administrative overhead of manually configuring static addresses.

  397. Question 397 of 906Which statement about VLAN configuration is true?

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    Correct answer: B. B. The switch must be in config-vlan mode before you configure an extended VLAN

    Extended VLANs are configured in config-vlan mode. Eliminate the other options because VTP mode restrictions and storage locations have specific limits that the distractors misstate.

  398. Question 398 of 906Which type of information resides on a DHCP server?

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    Correct answer: A. A. a list of the available IP addresses in a pool

    A DHCP server maintains a pool of available IP addresses and leases them dynamically to clients. The other options describe DNS, RADIUS, or static tasks, which are unrelated to core DHCP functions.

  399. Question 399 of 906Why would an administrator choose to implement an automated network management solution?

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    Correct answer: A. A. to reduce operational costs

    Automated network management reduces operational expenses by minimizing manual configuration tasks, decreasing human error, and improving efficiency. Manual configuration traps are eliminated because automation aims to reduce effort.

  400. Question 400 of 906A project objective is to minimize the association time to the different access points as mobile devices move around the office. The ideal solution must cover numerous devices and device types, including laptops, mobile phones, tablets, and wireless printers. What must be configured?

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    Correct answer: D. D. 802.11k neighbor List Dual Band

    The 802.11k standard provides neighbor reports that inform clients about nearby access points. This reduces scanning time and allows devices to roam more quickly across various device types.

  401. Question 401 of 906What is the definition of backdoor malware?

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    Correct answer: A. A. malicious code that is installed onto a computer to allow access by an unauthorized user

    Backdoor malware is malicious code that bypasses authentication to provide unauthorized system access. Trojans often deliver this malware, whereas droppers primarily download additional malicious payloads.

  402. Question 402 of 906What is the binary prefix for an IPv6 unique local address?

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    Correct answer: A. A. 1111110

    IPv6 unique local addresses use the FC00::/7 prefix, which means the first seven bits are 1111110. This specific binary pattern defines the ULA block for local network communications.

  403. Question 403 of 906Which EtherChannel mode must be configured when using LAG on a WLC?

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    Correct answer: A. A. on

    When configuring Link Aggregation on a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller, the connected switch port must use static mode. The controller does not support dynamic negotiation protocols like LACP or PAgP, requiring manual bundling.

  404. Question 404 of 906Which Windows command is used instead of the route print command to display the contents of the IP routing table?

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    Correct answer: B. B. netstat -r

    The netstat -r command displays the IP routing table on a Windows system and is functionally equivalent to route print. The -r parameter instructs the system to display routing information and active interfaces.

  405. Question 405 of 906What is a benefit of VRRP?

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    Correct answer: A. A. It provides the default gateway redundancy on a LAN using two or more routers.

    VRRP provides default gateway redundancy on a LAN by allowing multiple routers to share a single virtual IP address. The other options describe routing protocols, spanning tree, or load balancing, which serve entirely different networking functions.

  406. Question 406 of 906An engineer observes high usage on the 2.4GHz channels and lower usage on the 5GHz channels. What must be configured to allow clients to preferentially use 5GHz access points?

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    Correct answer: A. A. Client Band Select

    Client Band Select encourages dual-band clients to connect to the less congested 5-GHz radio by delaying 2.4-GHz probe responses. The other options manage roaming, tunneling, or physical layer technologies, not client steering.

  407. Question 407 of 906What is the purpose of an SSID?

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    Correct answer: D. D. It identifies a WLAN.

    The Service Set Identifier is the logical name that identifies a specific wireless LAN. It allows client devices to discover and connect to the correct network, differentiating it from security or individual access point identification.

  408. Question 408 of 906What is a capability of FTP in network management operations?

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    Correct answer: B. B. uses separate control and data connections to move files between server and client

    FTP uses two separate TCP connections: a control connection for commands and a data connection for transferring files. Unlike TFTP, FTP does not use UDP, and standard FTP does not inherently encrypt data.

  409. Question 409 of 906A network engineer must back up 20 network router configurations globally within a customer environment. Which protocol allows the engineer to perform this function using the Cisco IOS MIB?

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    Correct answer: B. B. SNMP

    The Simple Network Management Protocol uses Management Information Base objects to monitor and manage network devices. Cisco IOS MIBs can specifically trigger configuration copy operations, making it the correct choice for automated backups, unlike SMTP or CDP.

  410. Question 410 of 906Which HTTP status code is returned after a successful REST API request?

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    Correct answer: A. A. 200

    A two hundred OK status code indicates that a REST API request was successful. The exam expects you to distinguish standard HTTP response codes, where three zero one is a redirect, four zero four is not found, and five zero zero indicates a server error.

  411. Question 411 of 906How do UTP and STP cables compare?

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    Correct answer: B. B. STP cables are shielded and protect against electromagnetic interference and UTP lacks the same protection against electromagnetic interference.

    Shielded twisted pair cables include shielding that reduces electromagnetic interference and crosstalk. Unshielded twisted pair cables rely only on the twisting of the wire pairs to reduce interference and do not provide the same level of physical protection.

  412. Question 412 of 906An engineer needs to configure an access point to forward all client traffic through a wireless controller. Which mode must be enabled to accomplish this task?

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    Correct answer: A. A. local

    In local mode, a lightweight access point forwards all client traffic through the wireless LAN controller using CAPWAP tunnels. Both control and data traffic are encapsulated and sent to the controller for centralized processing.

  413. Question 413 of 906In a cloud-computing environment, what is rapid elasticity?

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    Correct answer: B. B. automatic adjustment of capacity based on need

    Rapid elasticity refers to the cloud capability to automatically scale resources up or down based on current demand. Capacity can be provisioned and released quickly to match workload requirements, distinguishing it from basic resource pooling.

  414. Question 414 of 906A client experiences slow throughput from a server that is directly connected to the core switch in a data center. A network engineer finds minimal latency on connections to the server, but data transfers are unreliable, and the output of the show interfaces counters errors command shows a high FCS-Err count on the interface that is connected to the server. What is the cause of the throughput issue?

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    Correct answer: A. A. a physical cable fault

    A high Frame Check Sequence error count indicates corrupted frames at Layer 2. These errors are most commonly caused by physical layer issues such as faulty cabling or damaged connectors, which force retransmissions and reduce actual throughput.

  415. Question 415 of 906A packet is destined for 10.10.1.22. Which static route does the router choose to forward the packet?

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    Correct answer: B. B. ip route 10.10.1.20 255.255.255.252 10.10.255.1

    Routers select the longest prefix match when multiple routes exist. The destination IP falls within the ten dot ten dot one dot twenty slash thirty subnet, making this slash thirty route the most specific match and the chosen path for forwarding.

  416. Question 416 of 906Which mode must be set for APs to communicate to a Wireless LAN Controller using the Control and Provisioning of Wireless Access Points (CAPWAP) protocol?

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    Correct answer: C. C. lightweight

    Lightweight mode allows an access point to operate under the management of a wireless LAN controller. Autonomous mode is the trap here because those access points operate independently and do not use CAPWAP for controller communication.

  417. Question 417 of 906How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they guarantee packet delivery?

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    Correct answer: C. C. TCP uses checksum, acknowledgements, and retransmissions, and UDP uses checksums only

    Transmission Control Protocol provides reliable delivery using acknowledgments and retransmissions to recover lost segments. User Datagram Protocol is connectionless and relies strictly on basic checksums for error detection without guaranteeing delivery.

  418. Question 418 of 906What is the benefit of using FHRP?

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    Correct answer: C. C. higher degree of availability

    First Hop Redundancy Protocols provide high availability for the default gateway by allowing a standby device to instantly take over if the primary fails. Load balancing is a trap because a single virtual IP is always presented to hosts.

  419. Question 419 of 906What is the functionality of the Cisco DNA Center?

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    Correct answer: D. D. software-defined controller for automation of devices and services

    Cisco DNA Center acts as a software defined controller designed to automate policy, provisioning, and management for enterprise devices. It is not a basic console server or scheduler, which eliminates the distracting operational options.

  420. Question 420 of 906What is the benefit of using private IPv4 addressing?

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    Correct answer: B. B. to shield internal network devices from external access

    Private IPv4 addresses are not routable on the public internet, hiding internal devices from direct external access. Incorrect options suggesting internet routing or secure connectivity misunderstand private addressing limits.

  421. Question 421 of 906Which action implements physical access control as part of the security program of an organization?

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    Correct answer: A. A. setting up IP cameras to monitor key infrastructure

    Setting up IP cameras provides surveillance and supports physical access control. The other options represent logical access controls, such as configuring console or enable passwords and backing up logs.

  422. Question 422 of 906A network administrator wants the syslog server to filter incoming messages into different files based on their importance. Which filtering criteria must be used?

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    Correct answer: B. B. level

    Syslog severity levels categorize messages by importance from emergencies to debugging. Filtering by facility would sort by the source process instead, so level is required to meet the requirement.

  423. Question 423 of 906What is a benefit of using private IPv4 addressing?

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    Correct answer: A. A. Multiple companies can use the same addresses without conflicts.

    Private IPv4 addresses are not globally routable, allowing different organizations to reuse the same ranges internally without conflict. Options mentioning direct internet access without NAT violate RFC 1918 rules, eliminating those distractors.

  424. Question 424 of 906How does Cisco DNA Center gather data from the network?

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    Correct answer: D. D. Network devices use different services like SNMP, syslog, and streaming telemetry to send data to the controller

    Cisco DNA Center collects device data using standard network protocols like SNMP, syslog, and streaming telemetry. The controller does not rely on IPsec tunnels for data collection, weakening the security tunneling distractor.

  425. Question 425 of 906What is a syslog facility?

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    Correct answer: D. D. set of values that represent the processes that can generate a log message

    A syslog facility is a numerical value identifying the process or service generating the log message, such as IP or local seven. Facilities separate from severity levels, which weakens the severity grouping distractor.

  426. Question 426 of 906Which effect does the aaa new-model configuration command have?

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    Correct answer: A. A. It enables AAA services on the device.

    The aaa new-model command globally enables authentication, authorization, and accounting services on a Cisco device. You must configure servers or local users separately, weakening the RADIUS and local user distractors.

  427. Question 427 of 906Why is UDP more suitable than TCP for applications that require low latency, such as VoIP?

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    Correct answer: D. D. TCP sends an acknowledgment for every packet that is received, and UDP operates without acknowledgments.

    TCP adds latency by requiring acknowledgments and retransmissions for reliable delivery. UDP operates without acknowledgments, making it suitable for real-time applications like VoIP where low delay is prioritized over reliability.

  428. Question 428 of 906Which WAN access technology is preferred for a small office / home office architecture?

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    Correct answer: A. A. broadband cable access

    Broadband cable access is preferred for SOHO environments because it is cost-effective and provides sufficient bandwidth. Frame Relay, ISDN, and dedicated leased lines are either obsolete or too expensive for small offices.

  429. Question 429 of 906What is a similarity between OM3 and OM4 fiber optic cable?

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    Correct answer: C. C. Both have a 50 micron core diameter.

    OM3 and OM4 are both laser-optimized multimode fiber types that use a 50 micron core diameter. This core size differentiates them from older 62.5 micron multimode fiber and standard 9 micron single-mode fiber.

  430. Question 430 of 906Which mechanism best protects against rogue DHCP servers by allowing DHCP replies only from trusted ports?

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    Correct answer: A. A. DHCP snooping

    DHCP snooping mitigates rogue servers by classifying ports as trusted or untrusted. The switch drops DHCP server messages arriving on untrusted ports, preventing malicious address assignment.

  431. Question 431 of 906Which device separates networks by security domains?

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    Correct answer: B. B. firewall

    Firewalls create security boundaries between network segments. By controlling traffic flow between trusted and untrusted zones, they establish distinct security domains that other devices like switches or access points do not inherently define.

  432. Question 432 of 906When a WLAN with WPA2 PSK is configured in the Wireless LAN Controller GUI, which format is supported?

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    Correct answer: B. B. ASCII

    Cisco WLC supports entering an ASCII passphrase for WPA2-PSK. Unicode, decimal, and Base64 are not accepted as valid input formats for this field. Eliminate invalid encoding types to select the proper alphanumeric format.

  433. Question 433 of 906A wireless access point is needed and must meet these requirements: deployed and managed "zero-touch" by a WLC, process only real-time MAC functionality, and used in a split-MAC architecture. Which access point type must be used?

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    Correct answer: C. C. lightweight

    Lightweight access points rely on a wireless LAN controller for centralized management and use a split-MAC architecture where real-time MAC functions stay local. Autonomous and cloud-based access points do not natively support this controller-based split-MAC division of labor.

  434. Question 434 of 906What does the PUT method within HTTP do?

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    Correct answer: A. A. It replaces data at the destination.

    The HTTP PUT method creates or completely replaces data at a specific destination URI. It is considered idempotent, meaning repeated identical requests yield the same result, which differentiates it from non-idempotent operations like POST.

  435. Question 435 of 906What makes Cisco DNA Center different from traditional network management applications and their management of networks?

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    Correct answer: D. D. It abstracts policy from the actual device configuration.

    Cisco DNA Center leverages intent-based networking by abstracting business policy away from the underlying device-level configurations. Traditional management applications require manual, device-by-device command-line configuration, lacking this automated translation of intent.

  436. Question 436 of 906Which 802.11 frame type is indicated by a probe response after a client sends a probe request?

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    Correct answer: B. B. management

    Probe requests and probe responses are 802.11 management frames used during the wireless discovery phase. Data frames carry actual user traffic, while control frames assist with media access and delivery reliability rather than network discovery.

  437. Question 437 of 906A network analyst is tasked with configuring the date and time on a router using privileged EXEC mode. The date must be set to January 1, 2020 and the time must be set to 12:00 am. Which command must be used?

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    Correct answer: D. D. clock set

    The privileged EXEC mode command clock set manually configures the system date and time on a Cisco router. The other options relate to time zone or daylight saving time configurations and cannot directly set the absolute hardware clock values.

  438. Question 438 of 906What is a characteristic of a SOHO network?

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    Correct answer: C. C. enables multiple users to share a single broadband connection

    A SOHO network typically allows multiple users and devices to share a single broadband Internet connection through a small router. The other options describe large enterprise architectures, such as three-tier hierarchical designs, rather than small office deployments.

  439. Question 439 of 906How does TFTP operate in a network?

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    Correct answer: C. C. Uses block numbers to identify and mitigate data-transfer errors

    TFTP uses block numbers and acknowledgments to ensure data integrity during transfers. Because it relies on connectionless UDP rather than TCP, options mentioning secure transfer, TCP port 20, or dual connections incorrectly describe FTP instead.

  440. Question 440 of 906Which feature or protocol determines whether the QoS on the network is sufficient to support IP services?

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    Correct answer: C. C. IP SLA

    IP SLA actively measures network performance metrics such as latency, jitter, and packet loss to validate quality of service for real-time applications. The other options are discovery or automation protocols that do not test traffic performance.

  441. Question 441 of 906What is a link-local all-nodes IPv6 multicast address?

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    Correct answer: A. A. ff02:0:0:0:0:0:0:1

    The link-local all-nodes IPv6 multicast address is ff02::1, fully written as ff02:0:0:0:0:0:0:1. The ff00 prefix denotes multicast, and the 02 specifies link-local scope.

  442. Question 442 of 906Which interface mode must be configured to connect the lightweight APs in a centralized WLAN architecture?

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    Correct answer: B. B. trunk

    A lightweight access point typically requires a trunk port to carry multiple VLANs like management and user traffic locally. A controller connection is an access port, which makes centralized wording tricky.

  443. Question 443 of 906A network administrator must configure SSH for remote access to router R1. The requirement is to use a public and private key pair to encrypt management traffic to and from the connecting client. Which configuration, when applied, meets the requirements?R1(config)# ip domain-name cisco.com

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    Correct answer: D. R1(config)# crypto key generate rsa modulus 1024

    The crypto key generate rsa command creates the public and private key pair required for SSH encryption. The modulus keyword specifies the key size in bits, making this the correct configuration step for secure remote management.

  444. Question 444 of 906Which type of IPv4 address must be assigned to a server to protect it from external access and allow only internal users access while restricting internet access?

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    Correct answer: A. A. private

    Private IPv4 addresses are not routable on the public internet. Assigning a private IP address to a server restricts direct external access and limits communication to internal networks unless network address translation is configured.

  445. Question 445 of 906Which WPA3 enhancement protects against hackers viewing traffic on the Wi-Fi network?

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    Correct answer: A. A. SAE encryption

    WPA3 uses Simultaneous Authentication of Equals for its authentication and key exchange process. This protocol provides forward secrecy, meaning previously captured traffic cannot be decrypted even if the network password is compromised later.

  446. Question 446 of 906A network engineer must create a diagram of a multivendor network. Which command must be configured on the Cisco devices so that the topology of the network is allowed to be mapped?

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    Correct answer: A. A. Device(config)#lldp run

    Link Layer Discovery Protocol is an IEEE standard designed to operate seamlessly across equipment from various vendors. Cisco Discovery Protocol is a trap here because it only discovers directly connected Cisco hardware.

  447. Question 447 of 906Why choose Cisco DNA Center for automated lifecycle management?

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    Correct answer: D. D. to provide fast and accurate deployment of patches and updates

    Cisco DNA Center provides centralized, software defined lifecycle automation that rapidly deploys patches and updates across the infrastructure. The goal of this enterprise controller is policy enforcement and orchestration, rather than basic management redundancy.

  448. Question 448 of 906An engineer needs to add an old switch back into a network. To prevent the switch from corrupting the VLAN database, which action must be taken?

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    Correct answer: A. A. Add the switch in the VTP domain with a lower revision number.

    VLAN Trunking Protocol uses configuration revision numbers to push the most recent VLAN database across the domain. Resetting the old switch to a lower revision number ensures it cannot accidentally overwrite the production network configuration.

  449. Question 449 of 906Which AP mode is used for capturing wireless traffic and forwarding that traffic to a PC that is running a packet analyzer?

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    Correct answer: D. D. sniffer

    Sniffer mode configures an access point to capture wireless frames and forward them to a packet analyzer like Wireshark. Monitor mode only listens for rogue devices, while sniffer mode is used for deep troubleshooting.

  450. Question 450 of 906How do servers connect to the network in a virtual environment?

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    Correct answer: D. D. a software switch on a hypervisor that is physically connected to the network

    Virtual machines connect to the network through a software-based virtual switch running on the hypervisor. The hypervisor's physical network interface cards provide the uplink to the physical network infrastructure.

  451. Question 451 of 906What does a switch use to build its MAC address table?

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    Correct answer: C. C. ingress traffic

    Switches dynamically build their MAC address tables by examining the source MAC address of incoming frames on ingress ports. VTP and DTP are trunk negotiation protocols that do not populate MAC tables, while egress traffic exits the interface.

  452. Question 452 of 906Which wireless security standard is generally considered the strongest among the options?

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    Correct answer: D. D. WPA3

    WPA3 is the strongest wireless security standard available because it mandates modern protections like Simultaneous Authentication of Equals. Older protocols like WEP, WPA, and WPA2 contain known cryptographic vulnerabilities and have been deprecated.

  453. Question 453 of 906What is the difference between 1000BASE-LX/LH and 1000BASE-ZX interfaces?

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    Correct answer: D. D. 1000BASE- LX/LH is supported on links up to 10km, and 1000Base-ZX operates over links up to 70 km

    1000BASE-LX/LH supports distances up to 10 kilometers over single-mode fiber. 1000BASE-ZX operates over much longer distances, typically up to 70 kilometers. The conditioning patch cable mentioned in a distractor is only for LX multimode.

  454. Question 454 of 906Which option about JSON is true?

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    Correct answer: B. B. used to describe structured data that includes arrays

    JSON is a lightweight format used to describe structured data, including arrays and key-value pairs. XML uses the predefined tags mentioned in the distractors, and JSON is actually less verbose than XML.

  455. Question 455 of 906What is a function of an endpoint on a network?

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    Correct answer: C. C. allows users to record data and transmit to a file server

    Endpoints like workstations allow users to generate data and transmit it to network servers. Switches and access points provide infrastructure connectivity, which eliminates the other networking device roles.

  456. Question 456 of 906A network engineer notices that two OSPF neighbors are connected using a crossover Ethernet cable. The neighbors are taking too long to become fully adjacent. Which command must be issued under the interface configuration on each router to reduce the time required for the adjacency to reach the FULL state?

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    Correct answer: D. D. ip ospf network point-to-point

    Configuring an interface as point-to-point eliminates the DR and BDR election process on OSPF broadcast networks. Removing this election overhead accelerates adjacency formation between two directly connected routers.

  457. Question 457 of 906What must a network administrator consider when deciding whether to configure a new wireless network with APs in autonomous mode or APs running in cloud-based mode?

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    Correct answer: A. A. Autonomous mode APs are less dependent on an underlay but more complex to maintain than APs in cloud-based mode.

    Autonomous access points are less dependent on an underlay because they operate independently, but they are harder to maintain individually. Distractors misrepresent cloud management complexity or automation capabilities.

  458. Question 458 of 906Which protocol uses SSL?

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    Correct answer: B. B. HTTPS

    HTTPS uses SSL or TLS to encrypt HTTP web traffic between clients and servers. SSH, Telnet, standard HTTP, and other protocols do not use SSL for encryption.

  459. Question 459 of 906An engineer is configuring SSH access to a router from the 10.139.58.0/28 subnet. Which configuration correctly permits this traffic on the destination router?A. interface FastEthernet0/0 ip address 10.122.49.2 255.255.255.252 ip access-group 110 in ! ip access-list extended 110 permit tcp 10.139.58.0 0.0.0.15 host 10.122.49.2 eq 22B. ip access-list extended 110 permit tcp 10.139.58.0 0.0.0.15 host 10.122.49.2 eq 22C. permit tcp 10.139.58.0 0.0.0.15 host 10.122.49.2 eq 22D. interface FastEthernet0/0 ip address 10.122.49.2 255.255.255.252E. ip address 10.122.49.2 255.255.255.252F. ip access-group 110 in

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    Correct answer: A. A.

    An extended ACL must match the source network using the correct wildcard mask and destination port. Option A correctly applies the inbound access group and specifies the exact protocol and subnet.

  460. Question 460 of 906An engineer must configure a core router with a floating static default route to the backup router at 10.200.0.2. Which command meets the requirements?

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    Correct answer: B. B. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.200.0.2 10

    A floating static route is created by specifying an administrative distance higher than the default. Setting the distance to ten ensures this backup route is only installed in the routing table if the primary link fails.

  461. Question 461 of 906A network engineer is configuring a switch so that it is remotely reachable via SSH. The engineer has already configured the host name on the router. Which additional command must the engineer configure before entering the command to generate the RSA key?

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    Correct answer: C. C. ip domain-name domain

    Generating RSA keys for SSH requires the device to have both a hostname and an IP domain name configured. These two values are combined to create a fully qualified domain name that serves as the basis for the cryptographic key pair.

  462. Question 462 of 906What is a function of a northbound API?

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    Correct answer: D. D. It provides a path between an SDN controller and network applications.

    A northbound API provides a communication interface between an SDN controller and upper-level network applications. It enables applications to request network services and program network behavior via the centralized controller.

  463. Question 463 of 906Which addressing range is reserved for APIPA when DHCP fails on a Windows host?

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    Correct answer: A. A. 169.254.0.0/16

    Automatic Private IP Addressing uses the sixteen bit block starting at sixteen nine dot two five four to self-assign an IP address. This happens automatically when a Windows host fails to receive a lease from a DHCP server.

  464. Question 464 of 906How does WPA3 improve security?

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    Correct answer: A. A. It uses SAE for authentication.

    WPA3 uses Simultaneous Authentication of Equals for authentication, which provides perfect forward secrecy and protects against offline dictionary attacks. RC4 and TKIP are deprecated legacy encryption protocols, while the four-way handshake is a vulnerable characteristic of WPA2.

  465. Question 465 of 906A switch is forwarding a frame out of all interfaces except the interface that received the frame. What is the technical term for this process?

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    Correct answer: C. C. flooding

    Flooding is the process where a switch forwards a frame out all active ports except the receiving interface when the destination MAC address is unknown. ARP and CDP are separate protocols for address resolution and neighbor discovery, while multicast targets specific subscribed groups.

  466. Question 466 of 906Which protocol does a REST API use to communicate?

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    Correct answer: D. D. HTTP

    REST APIs use HTTP as the underlying communication protocol to interact with web resources using standard methods like GET and POST. SSH, STP, and SNMP are incorrect because they handle remote management, loop prevention, and network monitoring rather than API data transfers.

  467. Question 467 of 906In software-defined architectures, which plane is distributed and responsible for traffic forwarding?

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    Correct answer: C. C. data plane

    In software-defined architectures, the data plane is distributed across network devices and is responsible for forwarding traffic. It handles the actual movement of packets between interfaces, applying policies computed by the centralized control plane.

  468. Question 468 of 906When a client and server are not on the same physical network, which device is used to forward requests and replies between client and server for DHCP?

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    Correct answer: B. B. DHCP relay agent

    A DHCP relay agent forwards broadcast messages from clients on one subnet to a server on another. Because broadcasts do not cross routers by default, the relay agent converts them to unicast, ensuring proper communication between separated clients and servers.

  469. Question 469 of 906Which protocol prevents Layer 2 loops by placing some switch ports into a blocking state?

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    Correct answer: C. C. STP

    Spanning Tree Protocol, or STP, prevents Layer 2 loops by placing redundant switch ports into a blocking state. Discovery protocols like LLDP and CDP only map neighbors, while NTP simply synchronizes the clock.

  470. Question 470 of 906Which set of methods is supported with the REST API?

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    Correct answer: C. C. GET, PUT, POST, DELETE

    Standard HTTP methods used by REST APIs include GET, PUT, POST, and DELETE. The other options invent nonexistent HTTP verbs like ERASE or CHANGE, which do not map to standard CRUD operations.

  471. Question 471 of 906When the active router in a VRRP group fails, which router assumes the role and forwards packets?

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    Correct answer: C. C. backup

    VRRP uses the terms master and backup. When the master router fails, the backup router takes over and starts forwarding packets. HSRP uses active and standby, so eliminate those terms.

  472. Question 472 of 906A network administrator plans an update to the Wi-Fi networks in multiple branch offices. Each location is configured with the same SSID called "Office." The administrator wants every user who connects to the SSID at any location to receive the same authentication and authorization results. What must be configured consistently across all networks to meet this requirement?

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    Correct answer: D. D. authentication and authorization policies

    Consistent authentication and authorization policies ensure that users receive identical access levels regardless of the branch office they connect from. Radio policies and profile names handle local射频 configurations and interface mappings, not the centralized access rules.

  473. Question 473 of 906Which type does a port become when it receives the best BPDU on a bridge?

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    Correct answer: D. D. The root port

    A port becomes the root port when a non-root bridge receives the best, or lowest-cost, BPDU from the root bridge. Designated ports send the best BPDUs downstream, while alternate ports offer backup paths, ruling out those alternatives.

  474. Question 474 of 906What is a difference between an IPv6 multicast address and an IPv6 anycast address?

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    Correct answer: B. B. A packet sent to an IPv6 multicast address is delivered to one or more destinations at once, but a packet sent to an IPv6 anycast address is routed to the closest interface with that address.

    An IPv6 multicast packet is delivered to all interfaces that belong to a specific multicast group. An anycast address, on the other hand, is shared by multiple nodes, but routing delivers the packet only to the topologically closest interface.

  475. Question 475 of 906Which plane is centralized by an SDN controller?

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    Correct answer: D. D. control-plane

    Software-defined networking separates the control plane from the data plane. The SDN controller centralizes forwarding decisions and pushes them to the network devices, which only handle the actual data forwarding.

  476. Question 476 of 906Which command automatically generates an IPv6 address from a specified IPv6 prefix and MAC address of an interface?

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    Correct answer: B. B. ipv6 address 2001:DB8:5:112::/64 eui-64

    Adding the EUI-64 keyword to an IPv6 address command tells the router to derive the host identifier from its MAC address. Stateful protocols like DHCP handle IPv4 configurations.

  477. Question 477 of 906Which command prevents passwords from being stored in the configuration as plain text on a router or switch?

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    Correct answer: C. C. service password-encryption

    The global command service password-encryption obfuscates all clear-text passwords in the running configuration. The enable secret command only secures privileged exec access.

  478. Question 478 of 906Which IPv6 address type uses the prefix FE80::/10?

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    Correct answer: A. A. Link-local

    IPv6 link-local addresses use the FE80 colon colon slash ten prefix for local on-link communication like neighbor discovery. Global unicast and unique local addresses are routable, while multicast uses the FF00 prefix.

  479. Question 479 of 906Which command must be entered so that the default gateway is automatically distributed when DHCP is configured on a router?

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    Correct answer: B. B. default-router

    The default-router command inside a DHCP pool specifies the default gateway address provided to DHCP clients. The default-gateway command is a trap because it is used on end devices, not DHCP servers.

  480. Question 480 of 906Which HTTP method is most commonly associated with the REST 'read' operation?

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    Correct answer: B. B. GET

    The GET method retrieves a representation of a resource without modifying it, aligning with the REST read operation. Other methods like POST or PUT involve creating or modifying data, effectively eliminating them.

  481. Question 481 of 906Which type of address is shared by routers in a HSRP implementation and used by hosts on the subnet as their default gateway address?

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    Correct answer: B. B. virtual IP address

    In HSRP, routers share a virtual IP address that hosts configure as their default gateway. This virtual IP remains active even if the primary router fails because the standby router seamlessly assumes the role.

  482. Question 482 of 906What is a function of a wireless LAN controller?

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    Correct answer: C. C. manage and control lightweight access points using CAPWAP

    A wireless LAN controller centrally manages and controls lightweight access points using the CAPWAP protocol. This centralized architecture allows the controller to push configuration and management policies down to the access points.

  483. Question 483 of 906An engineer must configure the IPv6 address 2001:0db8:0000:0000:0700:0003:400F:572B on the serial0/0 interface of the HQ router and wants to compress it for easier configuration. Which command must be issued on the router interface?

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    Correct answer: A. A. ipv6 address 2001:db8::700:3:400F:572B

    IPv6 compression rules allow you to omit leading zeros in any sixteen-bit block. Additionally, you can replace a single contiguous string of zero blocks with a double colons, which makes the first option the correct compressed notation.

  484. Question 484 of 906What is an enhancement implemented in WPA3?

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    Correct answer: D. D. defends against deauthentication and disassociation attacks

    WPA3 requires Protected Management Frames by default, which defends against deauthentication and disassociation attacks by cryptographically protecting wireless management frames. The other options describe standard WPA2 features or deprecated legacy protocols like TKIP.

  485. Question 485 of 906What is an advantage of using auto mode versus static mode for power allocation when an access point is connected to a PoE switch port?

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    Correct answer: D. D. It detects the device is a powered device.

    In auto mode, a PoE switch port automatically detects if the connected device is a powered device using standard resistance measurements before applying voltage. The other options describe unrelated physical layer characteristics, default configurations, or features that are not exclusive to auto mode.

  486. Question 486 of 906Which component of an Ethernet frame is used to notify a host that traffic is coming?

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    Correct answer: C. C. preamble

    The preamble synchronizes the receiving host's clock with the incoming bit stream, alerting it to an arriving frame. The start of frame delimiter marks the actual beginning of the frame, but the preamble provides the initial notification.

  487. Question 487 of 906Which management security process is invoked when a user logs in to a network device using their username and password?

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    Correct answer: A. A. authentication

    Authentication verifies the identity of a user during login using credentials like a username and password. Authorization determines what that verified user is allowed to do, while accounting tracks their actions.

  488. Question 488 of 906Which switch concept is used to create separate broadcast domains?

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    Correct answer: C. C. VLAN

    Virtual LANs logically segment a switch into separate broadcast domains to isolate traffic. Spanning Tree Protocol prevents loops, while VLAN Trunking Protocol manages configuration propagation.

  489. Question 489 of 906An engineer must configure a WLAN using the strongest encryption type for WPA2-PSK. Which cipher fulfills the configuration requirement?

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    Correct answer: B. B. AES

    Advanced Encryption Standard, or AES, provides the strongest confidentiality and integrity for WPA2 deployments. TKIP and RC4 are older, weaker legacy ciphers that are no longer recommended for secure networks.

  490. Question 490 of 906What is the purpose of an ESSID?

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    Correct answer: A. A. It allows multiple access points to provide a common network for client connections.

    An Extended Service Set Identifier allows multiple access points to advertise the same network name, creating a single logical wireless network. This enables clients to roam seamlessly across the coverage area.

  491. Question 491 of 906A network engineer is configuring an IPv6 address on a router loopback interface. Which prefix length should be used for the loopback interface?

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    Correct answer: D. D. /128

    An IPv6 loopback interface represents a single logical host, requiring a prefix length of 128. This mirrors the 32 bit host route convention used for IPv4 loopback configurations.

  492. Question 492 of 906What does physical access control regulate?

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    Correct answer: A. A. access to networking equipment and facilities

    Physical access control governs who can enter facilities and interact with networking hardware using mechanisms like locks or biometrics. It contrasts with logical controls that protect data on servers and networks.

  493. Question 493 of 906What identifies the functionality of virtual machines?

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    Correct answer: C. C. The hypervisor virtualizes physical components including CPU, memory, and storage.

    A hypervisor provides virtualization by abstracting physical hardware components like CPU, memory, and storage. This allows multiple isolated virtual machines to run efficiently on the same physical server.

  494. Question 494 of 906Which QoS feature drops traffic that exceeds the committed access rate?

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    Correct answer: A. A. policing

    Policing enforces a strict bandwidth threshold by immediately dropping or marking traffic that exceeds the defined rate limit. Shaping delays excess traffic by buffering it instead of dropping it outright.

  495. Question 495 of 906Which command enables a router to become a DHCP client?

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    Correct answer: A. A. ip address dhcp

    The command ip address dhcp is configured under an interface to enable that interface to obtain its IP address dynamically from a DHCP server. This effectively makes the router act as a DHCP client on that interface.

  496. Question 496 of 906What is a network appliance that checks the state of a packet to determine whether the packet is legitimate?

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    Correct answer: D. D. firewall

    A firewall, particularly a stateful firewall, examines the state of active connections to determine whether packets are part of a legitimate session. This process is known as stateful packet inspection and is a core firewall function.

  497. Question 497 of 906An engineer is configuring router R1 with an IPv6 static route for prefix 2019:C15C:0CAF:E001::/64. The next hop must be 2019:C15C:0CAF:E002::1. The next hop is reachable via the R1 GigabitEthernet0/0 interface. Which command configures the designated route?

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    Correct answer: D. D. R1(config)#ipv6 route 2019:C15C:0CAF:E001::/64 GigabitEthernet0/0 2019:C15C:0CAF:E002::1

    IPv6 static routes are configured in global configuration mode using the ipv6 route command. When both an exit interface and next-hop address are specified, the router uses the interface to reach the next hop.

  498. Question 498 of 906Which protocol is used to dynamically assign IP address configuration information to hosts?

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    Correct answer: C. C. DHCP

    DHCP, or Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol, assigns IP configuration parameters dynamically via leases. This reduces manual configuration overhead and improves centralized management of IP address allocations.

  499. Question 499 of 906Which channel-group mode must be configured when multiple distribution interfaces connected to a WLC are bundled?

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    Correct answer: D. D. Channel-group mode active.

    Cisco Wireless LAN Controllers require Link Aggregation Control Protocol for bundled links. Configuring the distribution switch ports in channel-group mode active ensures they actively initiate LACP negotiation to properly form the EtherChannel.

  500. Question 500 of 906When a site-to-site VPN is configured, which IPsec mode provides encapsulation and encryption of the entire original IP packet?

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    Correct answer: D. D. IPsec tunnel mode with ESP

    IPsec tunnel mode with Encapsulating Security Payload encrypts and encapsulates the entire original IP packet, including the original header. A new IP header is added for routing between VPN endpoints, making it the standard for site-to-site VPNs.

  501. Question 501 of 906Which VLAN is the default VLAN on Cisco switches?

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    Correct answer: B. B. VLAN 1

    VLAN 1 is the default VLAN on Cisco switches. By default, all switch ports are assigned to VLAN 1 for management and control traffic until explicitly reassigned to a different VLAN.

  502. Question 502 of 906What is the difference regarding reliability and communication type between TCP and UDP?

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    Correct answer: D. D. TCP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol; UDP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol.

    TCP is a reliable, connection-oriented protocol that establishes a session and uses acknowledgments to guarantee delivery. UDP is a connectionless protocol that trades reliability for speed by omitting these overhead mechanisms.

  503. Question 503 of 906Which action does the router take as it forwards a packet through the network?

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    Correct answer: C. C. The router replaces the original source and destination MAC addresses with the sending router MAC address as the source and neighbor MAC address as the destination.

    Routers decapsulate the Layer 2 frame to read the Layer 3 packet, then build a brand new frame for the next hop. The outgoing frame uses the router's interface MAC as the source and the next hop's MAC as the destination.

  504. Question 504 of 906Which function does an SNMP agent perform?

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    Correct answer: A. A. It sends information about MIB variables in response to requests from the NMS

    An SNMP agent resides on a managed network device and collects data into a Management Information Base. It responds to polling requests from the Network Management System and can proactively send trap messages.

  505. Question 505 of 906Which interface on the WLC is limited to one when LAG is in use?

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    Correct answer: D. D. AP-manager

    When Link Aggregation is enabled on a Wireless LAN Controller, all physical ports bundle into one logical path. Due to this hashing limitation, the controller supports exactly one AP-manager interface.

  506. Question 506 of 906Which command is used to specify the delay time in seconds for LLDP to initialize on any interface?

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    Correct answer: C. C. lldp reinit

    The LLDP reinit command specifies the delay time in seconds before LLDP will reinitialize on an interface. Remember that the timer command adjusts update frequency, while holdtime dictates how long neighbors cache the data.

  507. Question 507 of 906What is the purpose of the Cisco DNA Center controller?

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    Correct answer: A. A. to securely manage and deploy network devices

    Cisco DNA Center serves as a centralized controller to securely manage and deploy network devices using automation and assurance. It is an orchestration platform, not a localized Layer 3 routing service for autonomous access points.

  508. Question 508 of 906What is the primary purpose of private address space?

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    Correct answer: C. C. conserve globally unique address space

    Private IP addressing defined in RFC 1918 was established to conserve globally unique public IPv4 addresses. This allows internal networks to reuse addresses without consuming limited public internet space.

  509. Question 509 of 906Which action must be taken to assign a global unicast IPv6 address on an interface that is derived from the MAC address of that interface?

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    Correct answer: C. C. enable SLAAC on an interface

    Stateless Address Autoconfiguration allows a device to generate a global unicast IPv6 address using the EUI-64 process based on its MAC address. Stateful DHCPv6 assigns addresses without relying on the local MAC.

  510. Question 510 of 906What does a router do when it is configured with the default DNS lookup settings, and a URL is entered on the CLI?

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    Correct answer: D. D. It attempts to query a DNS server on the network.

    By default, Cisco routers have DNS lookup enabled and will attempt to resolve unrecognized commands as hostnames by querying a DNS server. If no server is configured, the router will time out after repeated attempts.

  511. Question 511 of 906Which is a reason to implement IPv4 private addressing?

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    Correct answer: B. B. Conserve public IPv4 address space.

    Private IPv4 addressing conserves the limited global public IP address space. While security by obscurity occurs, it is not the primary reason. Regulatory compliance distractors are completely unrelated to IP address allocation.

  512. Question 512 of 906What is a function of a southbound API?

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    Correct answer: C. C. Manage flow control between an SDN controller and a switching fabric

    A southbound API manages communication between the SDN controller and the network switching fabric. Northbound APIs handle communication with applications, making the application exchange option a distractor.

  513. Question 513 of 906What is a role of access points in an enterprise network?

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    Correct answer: C. C. connect wireless devices to a wired network

    Access points bridge wireless clients to a wired network infrastructure. They translate radio frequency signals to Ethernet. Security and login functions are handled by firewalls and authentication servers.

  514. Question 514 of 906Which statement describes a collapsed-core architecture?

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    Correct answer: C. C. The core and distribution layers are combined on a single device or a redundant pair of devices.

    A collapsed-core architecture combines the core and distribution layers onto a single device. This simplifies the network design. Three-tier designs keep the core and distribution layers on separate hardware.

  515. Question 515 of 906Which action is taken by switch port enabled for PoE power classification override?

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    Correct answer: A. A. If a monitored port exceeds the maximum administrative value for power, the port is shutdown and err-disabled.

    PoE power classification override enforces a strict administrative maximum. If a device exceeds this limit, the switch shuts down the port to protect the power budget. Options describing syslog messages or temporary pauses are incorrect.

  516. Question 516 of 906With REST API, which standard HTTP header tells a server which media type is expected by the client?

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    Correct answer: D. D. Accept: application/json

    The Accept header specifies the media type the client expects in the response. Content-Type is a distractor here because it defines the format of the payload being sent to the server.

  517. Question 517 of 906An Ethernet frame arrived at switch interface G0/1, but the destination MAC address is missing from the MAC address table. How does the switch process the frame?

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    Correct answer: D. D. It floods the frame out of the remaining switch interfaces.

    When a switch receives a frame with an unknown destination MAC address, it performs unknown unicast flooding. The frame is forwarded out all active ports in the receiving VLAN except the ingress port. Switches do not route ARP requests themselves; endpoints resolve MAC addresses.

  518. Question 518 of 906A network engineer is configuring a new router at a branch office. The router is connected to an upstream WAN network that allows the branch to communicate with the head office. The central time server with IP address 172.24.54.8 is located behind a firewall at the head office. Which command must the engineer configure so that the software clock of the new router synchronizes with the time server?

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    Correct answer: A. A. ntp server 172.24.54.8

    The ntp server command configures the router to synchronize its software clock with a specified external NTP server. This allows the router to act as a client and obtain time updates. The ntp peer command is used for symmetric peer associations, and ntp client is invalid.

  519. Question 519 of 906Why would VRRP be implemented when configuring a new subnet in a multivendor environment?

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    Correct answer: D. D. to provide a standards-based default gateway redundancy protocol that interoperates across multiple vendors

    The Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol is an open standard that provides default gateway redundancy across multiple vendors. In a mixed environment, proprietary protocols like Cisco's HSRP are avoided to ensure interoperability. VRRP provides a standards-based approach to gateway redundancy.

  520. Question 520 of 906A network engineer must configure the router R1 GigabitEthernet1/1 interface to connect to the router R2 GigabitEthernet1/1 interface. For the configuration to be applied, the engineer must compress the address 2001:0db8:0000:0000:0500:000a:400F:583B. Which command must be issued on the interface?

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    Correct answer: C. C. ipv6 address 2001:db8::500:a:400F:583B

    IPv6 address compression involves removing leading zeros from each hextet and replacing one contiguous block of zero hextets with a double colon. The address is correctly compressed as 2001:db8::500:a:400F:583B. You can only use the double colon once in an IPv6 address.

  521. Question 521 of 906When configuring an EtherChannel bundle, which mode enables LACP only if a LACP device is detected?

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    Correct answer: A. A. Passive

    Passive mode enables the Link Aggregation Control Protocol but waits to respond to inbound LACP packets rather than initiating negotiation. It will only form an EtherChannel if the neighboring device is actively running LACP. Active mode continuously initiates LACP negotiation.

  522. Question 522 of 906How does CAPWAP communicate between an access point in local mode and a WLC?

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    Correct answer: D. D. The access point has the ability to link to any switch in the network, assuming connectivity to the WLC

    A lightweight access point uses CAPWAP to form control and data tunnels with the wireless LAN controller over the IP network. The access point only requires Layer 3 connectivity to the controller, allowing it to connect through any intermediate switches and routers.

  523. Question 523 of 906Which statement describes network endpoints?

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    Correct answer: A. A. devices such as PCs, laptops, IP phones, printers, and IoT devices that connect to the network and act as sources or destinations of data

    Network endpoints are devices that connect to the network to act as sources or destinations for data traffic. Common examples include personal computers, IP phones, and printers. They are distinctly different from infrastructure devices like routers and switches which forward traffic.

  524. Question 524 of 906What should a network administrator consider when deciding to implement automation?

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    Correct answer: D. D. Manual changes frequently lead to configuration errors and inconsistencies.

    Network automation is primarily implemented to reduce manual configuration errors and improve consistency across the infrastructure. Manual changes frequently lead to misconfigurations and network outages. Automation scales easily and generally reduces operating costs by streamlining management.

  525. Question 525 of 906Which command is used to verify the DHCP relay agent address that has been set up on your Cisco IOS router?

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    Correct answer: D. D. show running-config

    The show running-config command displays the current configuration, including the IP helper addresses configured under specific interfaces. The show IP DHCP pool and bindings commands only display local server lease information, making them incorrect for relay verification.

  526. Question 526 of 906Which function generally performed by a traditional network device is replaced by a software-defined controller?

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    Correct answer: A. A. building route tables and updating the forwarding table

    A software-defined network controller centralizes the control plane, replacing the traditional distributed function of building route tables and updating forwarding information. Data plane tasks like packet encapsulation, NAT, and encryption remain on the local devices.

  527. Question 527 of 906Which advantage does the network assurance capability of Cisco DNA Center provide over traditional campus management?

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    Correct answer: D. D. Cisco DNA Center correlates information from different management protocols to obtain insights, and traditional campus management requires manual analysis.

    Cisco DNA Center Assurance automatically correlates telemetry from multiple management protocols to provide proactive insights and root cause analysis. Traditional campus management relies on manual analysis of disparate logs, which eliminates the other options.

  528. Question 528 of 906A network engineer starts to implement a new wireless LAN by configuring the authentication server and creating the dynamic interface. What must be performed next to complete the basic configuration?

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    Correct answer: A. A. Create the new WLAN and bind the dynamic interface to it.

    After configuring a RADIUS server and creating a dynamic interface, the next required step is to create the WLAN and bind it to that interface. Without this binding, client traffic cannot be mapped to the correct VLAN.

  529. Question 529 of 906Which configuration command can you apply to a HSRP router so that its local interface becomes active if all other routers in the group fail? Correct answer

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    Correct answer: A. A. no additional config is required

    HSRP failover is an inherent feature, meaning the standby router automatically assumes the active role if the current active router fails. No preempt configuration is needed for standard failover, as preempt only affects reclaiming the active role.

  530. Question 530 of 906What is a function of MAC learning on a switch?

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    Correct answer: D. D. The switch learns source MAC addresses from incoming frames and adds them to the MAC address table.

    MAC learning occurs when a switch examines the source MAC address of incoming frames and records it alongside the receiving port in the MAC address table. Unknown unicast frames are flooded, not dropped, until the destination is learned.

  531. Question 531 of 906Which command configures the time a port spends in the listening and learning states in STP?

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    Correct answer: D. D. switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 1 forward-time 20

    The forward-time parameter configures the duration a port stays in the listening and learning states before transitioning to forwarding. The max-age and hello-time parameters control separate STP convergence timers.

  532. Question 532 of 906Which feature on the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller when enabled restricts management access from specific networks?

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    Correct answer: B. B. CPU ACL

    A CPU ACL restricts management access to the wireless LAN controller by filtering traffic destined for its control plane. TACACS and RADIUS handle authentication and authorization, but they do not directly filter network access.

  533. Question 533 of 906How is a configuration change made to a wireless AP in lightweight mode?

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    Correct answer: B. B. CAPWAP/LWAPP connection via the parent WLC

    Lightweight access points are managed centrally through a CAPWAP tunnel connected to the wireless LAN controller. Direct SSH or web access is not used because the AP relies on the controller for all configuration updates.

  534. Question 534 of 906Which syslog severity level includes informational messages?

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    Correct answer: D. D. debug

    Setting a logging level includes that level and all higher severity levels. Choosing level 7, debug, captures everything down to level 6 informational messages, whereas lower numeric levels filter them out.

  535. Question 535 of 906Which WLC interface provides out-of-band management in the Cisco Unified Wireless Network Architecture?

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    Correct answer: B. B. service port

    The service port on a Cisco wireless LAN controller is dedicated to out-of-band management. It operates independently of the production data interfaces and is used for recovery and maintenance tasks.

  536. Question 536 of 906When OSPF learns multiple paths to a network, how does it select a route?

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    Correct answer: C. C. It divides a reference bandwidth of 100 Mbps by the actual bandwidth of the exiting interface to calculate the route with the lowest cost.

    OSPF calculates route cost by dividing a reference bandwidth by the interface bandwidth. The protocol selects the path with the lowest cumulative cost, eliminating hop-count and K-value distractors.

  537. Question 537 of 906Which port security violation mode allows traffic from valid MAC addresses to pass but blocks traffic from invalid MAC addresses?

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    Correct answer: C. C. protect

    Port security protect mode silently drops frames from unauthorized MAC addresses while allowing valid traffic. Restrict mode similarly drops traffic but increments violation counters and logs alerts.

  538. Question 538 of 906Which option best describes an API?

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    Correct answer: A. A. a contract that describes how various components communicate and exchange data with each other

    An application programming interface acts as a contract defining how software components exchange data. It allows interaction between systems without exposing internal code.

  539. Question 539 of 906An engineer must configure traffic for a VLAN that is untagged by the switch as it crosses a trunk link. Which command should be used?

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    Correct answer: D. D. switchport trunk native vlan 10

    In IEEE 802.1Q trunking, the native VLAN is forwarded without a tag. The switchport trunk native vlan command assigns this specific untagged VLAN.

  540. Question 540 of 906What is a similarity between global and unique local IPv6 addresses?

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    Correct answer: A. A. They use the same process for subnetting.

    Both global unicast and unique local IPv6 addresses utilize the same subnetting mechanics, typically allocating 64-bit prefixes for local networks. Unique local addresses, however, are not routed on the global internet.

  541. Question 541 of 906Two switches are connected and using Cisco Dynamic Trunking Protocol. SW1 is set to dynamic auto and SW2 is set to dynamic desirable. What is the result of this configuration?

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    Correct answer: D. D. The link becomes a trunk port.

    Dynamic desirable actively tries to form a trunk, while dynamic auto passively waits for trunking requests. Combining these modes results in a successful trunk link.

  542. Question 542 of 906What is a function of Cisco Advanced Malware Protection for a Next-Generation IPS?

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    Correct answer: A. A. inspecting specific files and file types for malware

    Cisco Advanced Malware Protection focuses on file analysis and reputation to detect malicious software. URL filtering is handled by distinct security features, whereas authenticating users is handled by access control protocols.

  543. Question 543 of 906How does a Cisco Unified Wireless Network respond to Wi-Fi channel overlap?

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    Correct answer: C. C. It analyzes client load and background noise and dynamically assigns a channel.

    Cisco wireless controllers use Radio Resource Management to automatically mitigate interference. It continuously analyzes client load and noise to dynamically assign the best channels for access points.

  544. Question 544 of 906What is the expected outcome when an EUI-64 address is generated?

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    Correct answer: C. C. The seventh bit of the original MAC address of the interface is inverted

    Generating an EUI-64 address involves inserting FFFE into the MAC address and inverting the seventh bit. This inversion modifies the Universal/Local bit to accurately form the interface identifier.

  545. Question 545 of 906What is the primary function of a Layer 3 device?

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    Correct answer: D. D. to pass traffic between different networks

    A Layer 3 device, like a router, routes traffic between different networks based on IP addresses. Layer 2 switches handle local forwarding within the same broadcast domain.

  546. Question 546 of 906What is a service that is provided by a wireless controller?

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    Correct answer: B. B. It manages interference in a dense network.

    A wireless LAN controller provides Radio Resource Management, which dynamically manages RF interference in dense deployments. Threat mitigation and routing are typically handled by dedicated security appliances and routers.

  547. Question 547 of 906Why would a network administrator choose to implement automation in a network environment?

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    Correct answer: A. A. To simplify the process of maintaining a consistent configuration state across all devices

    Network automation ensures consistent configuration states across devices while reducing manual human error. Storing device information and managing accounts are specific tool features rather than the primary architectural goal of automation.

  548. Question 548 of 906A device detects two stations transmitting frames at the same time. This condition occurs after the first 64 bytes of the frame are received. Which interface counter increments?

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    Correct answer: C. C. late collision

    A late collision occurs after the first sixty four bytes of a frame have been transmitted. Standard collisions happen earlier in the transmission window, while runts and CRC errors describe damaged or truncated frames.

  549. Question 549 of 906Which syslog message logging level displays interface line protocol up/down events?

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    Correct answer: D. D. notifications

    Interface line protocol transitions generate syslog messages at the notifications level, which is level five. The lower numerical levels are reserved for more severe emergencies that require immediate intervention.

  550. Question 550 of 906Which Cisco proprietary protocol ensures traffic recovers immediately, transparently, and automatically when edge devices or access circuits fail?

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    Correct answer: C. C. HSRP

    The Hot Standby Router Protocol is a Cisco proprietary first-hop redundancy protocol. VRRP is an open standard, while FHRP is a general category and SLB balances server traffic.

  551. Question 551 of 906Which type of IPv6 address is publicly routable in the same way as IPv4 public addresses?

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    Correct answer: D. D. global unicast

    Global unicast addresses are designed to be routed publicly across the internet. Unique local and link-local addresses are restricted to internal or local network scope.

  552. Question 552 of 906A network engineer is upgrading a small data center to host several new applications. Server backups are sent to a specific remote backup subnet across an MPLS provider network and are expected to consume up to 90% of the bandwidth during peak times. The data center connects to the MPLS provider using a primary circuit and a secondary circuit. Which low-cost solution would steer the backup-subnet traffic away from the primary circuit and onto the secondary circuit?

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    Correct answer: C. C. Advertise a more specific route for the remote backup subnet via the secondary circuit.

    Routers always prefer the most specific matching prefix when making forwarding decisions. Advertising a longer subnet mask over the secondary circuit successfully engineers the backup traffic without requiring expensive physical upgrades.

  553. Question 553 of 906Which REST method updates an object in the Cisco DNA Center Intent API?

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    Correct answer: D. D. PUT

    The PUT method updates or replaces an existing object in a REST API. The POST method creates new objects, which makes it a common trap for candidates expecting an update operation.

  554. Question 554 of 906Which property is shared by 10GBase-SR and 10GBase-LR interfaces?

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    Correct answer: C. C. Both require fiber cable media for transmission.

    Both 10GBase-SR and 10GBase-LR require fiber-optic cable media for transmission. SR typically uses multimode fiber while LR uses single-mode, which eliminates the options specifying either UTP or a single shared fiber type.

  555. Question 555 of 906Which functionality is provided by the console connection on a Cisco WLC?

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    Correct answer: C. C. out-of-band management

    A console connection provides out-of-band management access directly through a physical cable. It operates independently of the network configuration, whereas in-band management options require active IP connectivity.

  556. Question 556 of 906By default, how long will the switch continue to know a workstation MAC address after the workstation stops sending traffic?

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    Correct answer: B. B. 300 seconds

    By default, Cisco switches age out dynamically learned MAC address entries after 300 seconds of inactivity. This standard default aging time allows the switch to automatically remove stale entries from the table.

  557. Question 557 of 906Which statement about LLDP is true?

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    Correct answer: B. B. It is configured in global configuration mode.

    LLDP is enabled and configured in global configuration mode using the command lldp run. It operates strictly at Layer 2, making it vendor-neutral and completely separate from transport layer protocols.

  558. Question 558 of 906Which QoS tool is used to optimize voice traffic on a network that is primarily intended for data traffic?

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    Correct answer: D. D. PQ

    Priority Queuing ensures high-priority traffic like voice is transmitted before lower-priority data. Be careful here, because Low Latency Queuing is the modern Cisco best practice, which makes this question somewhat ambiguous despite the intended answer.

  559. Question 559 of 906How does the dynamically-learned MAC address feature function?

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    Correct answer: A. A. The CAM table is empty until ingress traffic arrives at each port

    A switch begins with an empty MAC address table. As frames arrive on a port, the switch examines the source MAC address and records it in its content addressable memory table, allowing it to dynamically build the forwarding database.

  560. Question 560 of 906What is an expected outcome when network management automation is deployed?

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    Correct answer: D. D. Software upgrades are performed from a central controller.

    A key expected outcome of network management automation is centralized lifecycle management. This includes the ability to perform software upgrades and distribute configurations from a central controller, significantly reducing manual operational effort.

  561. Question 561 of 906What is the role of a firewall in an enterprise network?

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    Correct answer: A. A. determines which packets are allowed to cross from unsecured to secured networks

    A firewall enforces security policies by determining which packets are permitted or denied when crossing boundaries between secure and unsecure networks. Options B, C, and D are incorrect because they either describe unsafe behaviors or omit the stateful inspection rules that modern firewalls use.

  562. Question 562 of 906What benefit does controller-based networking provide versus traditional networking?

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    Correct answer: A. A. allows configuration and monitoring of the network from one centralized point

    Controller-based networking centralizes network management by separating the control plane from the data plane. This provides a single point of configuration and monitoring, which is the primary advantage over traditional distributed management.

  563. Question 563 of 906How does traditional campus device management differ from Cisco DNA Center device management in regards to deployment?

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    Correct answer: B. B. Cisco DNA Center device management can deploy a network more quickly than traditional campus device management.

    Cisco DNA Center uses automated provisioning to push configurations to multiple devices simultaneously from a central dashboard. Traditional management requires manual, device-by-device command-line configuration, making deployments much slower and more prone to human error.

  564. Question 564 of 906What is a requirement for nonoverlapping Wi-Fi channels?

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    Correct answer: B. B. discontinuous frequency ranges

    Nonoverlapping Wi-Fi channels must use discontinuous frequency ranges that do not share overlapping spectrum. In the 2.4 GHz band, for example, channels 1, 6, and 11 are spaced far enough apart to prevent frequency overlap.

  565. Question 565 of 906How does encryption protect the wireless network?

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    Correct answer: B. B. via an algorithm to change wireless data so that only the access point and client understand it

    Encryption protects wireless communications by applying cryptographic algorithms to transform plaintext data into ciphertext. Only authorized devices, such as the access point and authenticated client, can decrypt and understand the transmitted information.

  566. Question 566 of 906What is the primary purpose of a console port on a Cisco WLC?

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    Correct answer: C. C. out-of-band management via an asynchronous transport

    A console port provides out-of-band management access through an asynchronous serial connection. Options mentioning in-band or IP transport confuse console access with network management interfaces like SSH or HTTPS.

  567. Question 567 of 906Which definition describes JWT in regard to REST API security?

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    Correct answer: C. C. an encoded JSON token that is used to securely exchange information

    A JSON Web Token is an encoded token used to securely exchange information between parties. The token is digitally signed for integrity, but it is not encrypted by default, making the encrypted options incorrect.

  568. Question 568 of 906What is the function of FTP?

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    Correct answer: D. D. Uses two separate connections for control and data traffic

    File Transfer Protocol operates using two distinct TCP connections for control traffic and data transfer. Options referencing UDP port 69 are describing TFTP, which uses a simpler, connectionless architecture.

  569. Question 569 of 906How are the switches in a spine-and-leaf topology interconnected?

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    Correct answer: B. B. Each leaf switch is connected to each spine switch.

    A spine-and-leaf topology requires every leaf switch to connect to every spine switch. This fabric design provides equal-cost multipath routing and predictable latency. Options describing partial or central connections describe legacy designs.

  570. Question 570 of 906What is used as a solution for protecting an individual network endpoint from attack?

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    Correct answer: A. A. antivirus software

    Antivirus software is installed directly on endpoints to detect and remove malicious code. Network devices like routers and wireless controllers secure the broader network rather than the individual host.

  571. Question 571 of 906Which selections must be used on the WLC when implementing a RADIUS server for wireless authentication?

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    Correct answer: C. C. AAA Override and the IP address of the server

    Configuring a RADIUS server on a WLC requires the server IP address. AAA Override is optional for dynamic VLAN assignment but not mandatory for basic authentication, making this choice slightly ambiguous.

  572. Question 572 of 906How does IPsec provide secure networking for applications within an organization?

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    Correct answer: C. C. It enables sets of security associations between peers.

    IPsec establishes secure communication through the creation of Security Associations between peers. These associations define the cryptographic parameters and protocols used to protect traffic. FTP and TFTP are separate application layer protocols, while GRE provides tunneling without native encryption.

  573. Question 573 of 906An engineer must configure interswitch VLAN communication between a Cisco switch and a third-party switch. Which action should be taken?

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    Correct answer: B. B. configure IEEE 802.1q

    IEEE 802.1Q is the industry-standard trunking protocol used to tag frames for multiple VLANs across a single link. Because the connection involves a third-party switch, a standards-based protocol is required. Cisco's proprietary Inter-Switch Link, or ISL, is unsupported by other vendors.

  574. Question 574 of 906Which value is the unique identifier that an access point uses to establish and maintain wireless connectivity to wireless network devices?

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    Correct answer: B. B. SSID

    The Service Set Identifier, or SSID, is the unique logical name assigned to a wireless network that clients use to associate with an access point. VLAN and WLAN IDs map traffic logically, while RFID tracks physical assets, eliminating those distractors.

  575. Question 575 of 906Which design element is a best practice when deploying an 802.11b wireless infrastructure?

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    Correct answer: A. A. allocating nonoverlapping channels to access points that are in close physical proximity to one another

    Allocating non-overlapping channels to nearby access points reduces adjacent-channel interference and is a fundamental deployment best practice. Disabling TCP or restricting maximum data rates are invalid configuration concepts, directly eliminating those options.

  576. Question 576 of 906What is the default port-security behavior on a trunk link? Correct answer

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    Correct answer: A. A. It places the port in the err-disabled state if it learns more than one MAC address.

    Port security defaults to restricting a trunk link to a single MAC address and will place the port in err-disabled state upon violation. Because a trunk requires multiple addresses, you must manually raise the maximum allowed limit.

  577. Question 577 of 906Which configuration most likely ensures that the switch becomes the root bridge for VLAN 750?

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    Correct answer: B. B. Switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 750 priority 0

    Setting the STP priority to zero forces the switch to have the lowest possible bridge ID, making it the root bridge. While the root primary command also works, a priority of zero provides an absolute guarantee against other switches.

  578. Question 578 of 906Which goal is achieved by the implementation of private IPv4 addressing on a network?

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    Correct answer: A. A. provides an added level of protection against Internet exposure

    Private IPv4 addresses are not routable on the public internet. This inherently shields internal hosts from direct external exposure, reducing attack vectors.

  579. Question 579 of 906Which step immediately follows receipt of the EAP success message when session resumption is disabled for an EAP-TLS connection?

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    Correct answer: B. B. four-way handshake

    After an EAP success message, an access point and client establish encryption keys using a four-way handshake. Disabling session resumption prevents fast roaming, forcing a full authentication before this key exchange.

  580. Question 580 of 906How do TCP and UDP differ in the way that they establish a connection between two endpoints?

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    Correct answer: A. A. TCP uses the three-way handshake, and UDP does not guarantee message delivery.

    TCP establishes a connection using a three-way handshake before data transfer. UDP is a connectionless protocol that simply sends packets without any handshake or delivery guarantee.

  581. Question 581 of 906Which action is taken by a switch port enabled for PoE power classification override?

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    Correct answer: D. D. Should a monitored port exceed the maximum administrative value for power, the port is shut down and err-disabled

    Power classification override monitors a port to protect the power budget. If a device exceeds the administrative maximum, the switch shuts down the port and places it in an err-disabled state.

  582. Question 582 of 906Which WLC management connection type is vulnerable to man-in-the-middle attacks?

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    Correct answer: B. B. Telnet

    Telnet transmits data and credentials in plaintext, leaving it vulnerable to man-in-the-middle attacks. Secure protocols like SSH and HTTPS provide encryption, while a local console connection bypasses the network entirely, eliminating this risk.

  583. Question 583 of 906Which device performs stateful inspection of traffic?

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    Correct answer: B. B. firewall

    A firewall performs stateful inspection by monitoring the active state of connections to make forwarding decisions. Standard switches, access points, and wireless controllers generally lack this deep traffic inspection capability.

  584. Question 584 of 906What is the function of off-the-shelf switches in a controller-based network?

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    Correct answer: B. B. forwarding packets

    In a controller based network, switches operate strictly in the data plane to forward packets based on rules from the controller. The controller itself manages the centralized view and policy decisions.

  585. Question 585 of 906Which DSCP per-hop forwarding behavior is divided into subclasses based on drop probability?

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    Correct answer: C. C. assured

    Assured Forwarding defines four classes, each with three drop precedence values. The other behaviors do not use subclasses to dictate drop probability.

  586. Question 586 of 906Which type of wireless encryption is used for WPA2 in preshared key mode?

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    Correct answer: A. A. AES-128

    WPA2 uses AES with CCMP for encryption. TKIP and RC4 are legacy protocols tied to the older WPA standard and are eliminated for modern WPA2 networks.

  587. Question 587 of 906What is the role of community strings in SNMP operations?

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    Correct answer: D. D. It serves as a password to protect access to MIB objects.

    In SNMP versions one and two, a community string functions as a plain text password. It restricts access to Management Information Base objects rather than handling Active Directory integration.

  588. Question 588 of 906Which technology is used to improve web traffic performance by proxy caching?

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    Correct answer: A. A. WSA

    The Cisco Web Security Appliance provides web proxy and caching functionality to improve traffic performance and enforce security policies. The other options are incorrect because Firepower, ASA, and FireSIGHT are primarily focused on firewalling and threat defense rather than proxy caching.

  589. Question 589 of 906A network engineer is implementing a corporate SSID for WPA3-Personal security with a PSK. Which encryption cipher must be configured?

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    Correct answer: D. D. GCMP128

    WPA3-Personal requires the GCMP128 encryption cipher to provide both data confidentiality and integrity in a single operation. The other options are incorrect because GCMP256 is for enterprise mode, while CCMP variations are associated with the older WPA2 standard.

  590. Question 590 of 906Which component runs inside a virtual machine?

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    Correct answer: A. A. Guest operating system and applications

    A virtual machine contains a guest operating system and its associated applications. These operate as if they were on a physical machine, using virtualized hardware provided by the host's hypervisor.

  591. Question 591 of 906What is the MAC address used with VRRP as a virtual address?

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    Correct answer: B. B. 00-00-5E-00-01-0a

    VRRP uses a reserved MAC address format to ensure proper Layer 2 communication. The correct format is 00-00-5E-00-01-XX, where the last two hexadecimal digits represent the VRRP group number. The only option matching this exact pattern is 00-00-5E-00-01-0a.

  592. Question 592 of 906What is a similarity between 1000BASE-LX and 1000BASE-T standards?

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    Correct answer: A. A. Both use the same data-link header and trailer formats.

    Both 1000BASE-LX and 1000BASE-T are Gigabit Ethernet standards operating at Layer 1, meaning they use identical Layer 2 Ethernet frame formats. Distractors can be eliminated because fiber standards do not use RJ-45 connectors and have different distance limitations.

  593. Question 593 of 906Which type of encryption does WPA1 use for data protection?

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    Correct answer: B. B. TKIP

    WPA1 uses Temporal Key Integrity Protocol to encrypt wireless data frames. AES is a newer encryption standard associated with WPA2 and WPA3, making it a distractor here.

  594. Question 594 of 906Which function is performed by the collapsed core layer in a two-tier architecture?

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    Correct answer: A. A. enforcing routing policies

    In a collapsed core architecture, the core and distribution layers merge to handle routing policies and inter-VLAN routing. Options describing access layer functions, like attaching users to the network edge, are incorrect.

  595. Question 595 of 906Which encryption method is used by WPA3 to protect wireless data?

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    Correct answer: B. B. AES

    Advanced Encryption Standard, or AES, is the encryption algorithm used by WPA3 to protect wireless data confidentiality. Simultaneous Authentication of Equivalents, or SAE, is the key exchange method, while TKIP is an obsolete WPA1 mechanism, ruling out those options.

  596. Question 596 of 906Which cable type must be used to interconnect one switch using 1000BASE-SX GBIC modules and another switch using 1000BASE-SX SFP modules?

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    Correct answer: A. A. LC to SC

    A 1000BASE-SX GBIC typically uses an SC fiber connector, while an SFP uses an LC connector. Interconnecting them requires a cable with matching physical connectors on each end.

  597. Question 597 of 906Which cipher is supported for wireless encryption only with the WPA2 standard?

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    Correct answer: B. B. AES

    WPA2 mandates the Advanced Encryption Standard, or AES, for strong wireless security. RC4 is an older legacy stream cipher associated with the obsolete WPA standard, which allows you to eliminate it immediately.

  598. Question 598 of 906What is the maximum number of concurrent Telnet sessions that a Cisco WLC supports?

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    Correct answer: B. B. 5

    Cisco Wireless LAN Controllers support a maximum of five concurrent Telnet sessions for remote CLI management. Understanding these platform management limitations is important when planning administrative access to network infrastructure devices.

  599. Question 599 of 906An organization secures its network with multi-factor authentication using an authenticator app on employee smartphones. How is the application secured in the case of a user's smartphone being lost or stolen?

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    Correct answer: A. A. The application requires the user to enter a PIN before it provides the second factor

    Authenticator apps typically require a local PIN or biometric lock before displaying time-based one-time passwords. This local security measure prevents a thief from easily accessing the second factor on a stolen device.

  600. Question 600 of 906What value does a router use for the OSPF router ID if all routers in an area share the same priority and no loopback interface is configured?

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    Correct answer: C. C. the highest IP address among its active interfaces

    Without a manual ID or loopback, OSPF selects the highest IP address among active physical interfaces. Priority values only determine designated router elections and do not influence the router ID selection.

  601. Question 601 of 906Which function does an iterative DNS query serve in the domain name resolution process?

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    Correct answer: C. C. Allow a DNS client to contact several DNS servers until the correct information is found.

    In an iterative query, the DNS resolver contacts a DNS server and receives a referral to another server. It then contacts additional servers sequentially until the correct information is obtained. This contrasts with recursive queries where the server does the work.

  602. Question 602 of 906Refer to the exhibit. What does apple represent within the JSON data?

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    Correct answer: D. D. string

    In JSON format, keys must always be strings enclosed in double quotation marks. The identifier represents a string key paired with its corresponding value, distinguishing it from arrays or numbers.

  603. Question 603 of 906Refer to the exhibit. If configuring a static default route on the router with the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.13.0.1 120 command, how does the router respond?

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    Correct answer: D. D. It ignores the new static route until the existing OSPF default route is removed.

    Routing decisions are determined by administrative distance when multiple sources provide the same prefix. Because the existing OSPF route has a lower administrative distance of 110, it is preferred over the new static route assigned an administrative distance of 120.

  604. Question 604 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Which password must an engineer use to enter the enable mode?

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    Correct answer: D. D. testing1234

    The enable secret command overrides the standard enable password for privileged EXEC mode access. Therefore, testing1234 is the required password, making the other configured passwords irrelevant distractors.

  605. Question 605 of 906Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is asked to insert the new VLAN into the existing trunk without modifying anything previously configured. Which command accomplishes this task?

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    Correct answer: D. D. switchport trunk allowed vlan add 104

    The add keyword appends a specific VLAN to the existing allowed list on a trunk link. Without this keyword, the command would overwrite the current list and break connectivity for previously allowed VLANs.

  606. Question 606 of 906Refer to the exhibit. How many JSON objects are represented?

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    Correct answer: A. A. 1

    A single pair of enclosing curly braces defines exactly one JSON object. Internal arrays and key-value pairs belong to that parent structure and do not create additional distinct objects.

  607. Question 607 of 906Refer to the exhibit. How will the device handle a packet destined to IP address 100.100.100.100?

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    Correct answer: D. D. It will choose the route with the longest match, O 100.100.100.100/32 [110/21] via 192.168.1.1, 00:05:57, Ethernet0/1.

    Cisco routers always forward packets using the longest matching prefix in the routing table. A 32-bit host route is the most specific match available, overriding administrative distance and metric.

  608. Question 608 of 906Refer to the exhibit. How does the router manage traffic to 192.168.12.16?

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    Correct answer: D. D. It selects the RIP route because it has the longest prefix inclusive of the destination address.

    The router selects the route with the longest prefix length when multiple routes match the destination. A 27-bit prefix is more specific than a 24-bit prefix, so the router uses the RIP route.

  609. Question 609 of 906Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer executes the show ip route command on router D. What is the next hop to network 192.168.1.0/24 and why?

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    Correct answer: D. D. The next hop is 10.0.0.1 because it has a better administrative distance.

    When a router learns the same destination network from multiple routing protocols, administrative distance breaks the tie. Internal EIGRP has a lower administrative distance than OSPF. Therefore, the router prefers the EIGRP route via 10.0.0.1.

  610. Question 610 of 906Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is adding another physical interface as a new member to the existing Port-Channel1 bundle. Which command set must be configured on the new interface to complete the process?

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    Correct answer: C. C. switchport mode trunk channel-group 1 mode active

    Layer two EtherChannel requires the physical interface to match the logical port-channel configuration. Setting trunk mode and channel-group one mode active ensures compatibility with the existing LACP bundle. Other options omit the active LACP negotiation command.

  611. Question 611 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Which outcome is expected when PC_A sends data to PC_B after their initial communication?

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    Correct answer: C. C. The source and destination MAC addresses remain the same.

    Switches forward frames within the same VLAN without altering the source and destination MAC addresses. Because both PCs belong to VLAN 200, unicast frames traverse the switch intact. Switches never rewrite MAC addresses with their own.

  612. Question 612 of 906Refer to the exhibit. An administrator must configure interfaces Gi1/1 and Gi1/3 on switch SW11. PC-1 and PC-2 must be placed in the Data VLAN, and Phone-1 must be placed in the Voice VLAN. Which configuration meets these requirements?

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    Correct answer: A. A.

    Access ports assign untagged data traffic to the access VLAN while the voice VLAN tags phone traffic. Configuring both interfaces for VLAN 8 and applying the voice VLAN command on the phone interface satisfies the requirements. Trunk mode is unnecessary for edge devices.

  613. Question 613 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Assume DHCP snooping is enabled and valid bindings exist for VLAN 5. What is the effect of this configuration?

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    Correct answer: A. A. The switch discards all ingress ARP traffic with invalid MAC-to-IP address bindings.

    Dynamic ARP Inspection intercepts and validates ARP packets against DHCP snooping bindings. Untrusted ports drop ARP traffic with invalid IP-to-MAC address mappings. The switch does not drop all ARP packets or restrict general egress traffic.

  614. Question 614 of 906Refer to the exhibit. With which metric does router R1 learn the route to host 172.16.0.202?

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    Correct answer: C. C. 32445

    Routers use the longest prefix match rule to select the most specific route for a destination. The IP address falls within the slash 25 subnet, which has a metric of 32445. The slash 29 subnet does not cover this address.

  615. Question 615 of 906Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is tasked with configuring a voice VLAN. What is the expected outcome when a Cisco phone is connected to the GigabitEthernet 3/1/4 port on a switch?

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    Correct answer: B. B. The phone sends and receives data in VLAN 50, but a workstation connected to the phone sends and receives data in VLAN 1.

    The voice VLAN command instructs the IP phone to tag its voice traffic in VLAN 50. Data traffic from a connected workstation remains untagged and lands in the native access VLAN. The phone and PC do not share the same VLAN.

  616. Question 616 of 906Refer to the exhibit. The show ip ospf interface command has been executed on R1. How is OSPF configured?

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    Correct answer: C. C. The default Hello and Dead timers are in use.

    OSPF relies on matching hello and dead timers to form neighbor adjacencies. The exhibit displays the default broadcast network timer values of 10 and 40 seconds. Incorrect options misinterpret the network type or neighbor count.

  617. Question 617 of 906Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is verifying the settings on a new OSPF network. All OSPF configurations use the default values unless otherwise indicated. Which router does the engineer expect will be elected as the DR when all devices boot up simultaneously?

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    Correct answer: D. D. R4

    OSPF designates a router based on the highest interface priority on the broadcast segment. Because R4 has a priority of 204, which is higher than all other routers, it wins the election regardless of router ID.

  618. Question 618 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Which route must be configured on R1 so that OSPF routing is used when OSPF is up, but the server is still reachable when OSPF goes down?

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    Correct answer: D. D. ip route 10.1.1.10 255.255.255.255 172.16.2.2 125

    A floating static route uses an administrative distance higher than the dynamic routing protocol to act as a backup. Because the distance of 125 is higher than the OSPF default of 110, the static route only installs if OSPF fails.

  619. Question 619 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Site A was recently connected to site B over a new single-mode fiber path. Users at site A report intermittent connectivity issues with applications hosted at site B. What is the reason for the problem?

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    Correct answer: D. D. An incorrect type of transceiver has been inserted into a device on the link

    Single-mode fiber spanning long distances requires compatible long-range optics on both ends. Because the site uses a short-range transceiver instead of a long-range one, the physical layer mismatch causes intermittent connectivity over the seven kilometer link.

  620. Question 620 of 906Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is checking the routing table in the main router to identify the path to a server on the network. Which route does the router use to reach the server at 192.168.2.2?

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    Correct answer: B. B. S 192.168.2.0/29 [1/0] via 10.1.1.1

    The longest-prefix match rule dictates that the router chooses the most specific subnet in its routing table. Because the slash twenty-nine route covers the exact host range, it is preferred over the broader slash twenty-eight or slash twenty options.

  621. Question 621 of 906Refer to the exhibit. What is the next hop address for traffic that is destined to host 10.0.1.5?

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    Correct answer: D. D. 10.0.1.50

    The longest-prefix match rule dictates that the router chooses the most specific subnet available. Because a slash thirty-two host route is the most specific match possible, the router forwards traffic to its designated next hop.

  622. Question 622 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Which type of JSON data is shown?

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    Correct answer: D. D. object

    Curly braces in JSON syntax denote an object that contains key-value pairs. Because the structure starts and ends with these braces, it forms an object rather than an array or a standalone boolean value.

  623. Question 623 of 906Refer to the exhibit.Switch | Priority | MAC Address —|—|— SW1 | 12288 | 00:10:a1:95:2b:77 SW2 | 28672 | 00:10:a1:82:03:94 SW3 | 28672 | 00:10:a1:51:57:51 SW4 | 12288 | 00:10:a1:03:42:e8Which switch becomes the root bridge?

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    Correct answer: D. D. SW4 – Bridge Priority – 12288 – mac-address 00:10:a1:03:42:e8

    Spanning Tree Protocol elects the root bridge based on the lowest bridge ID, which combines priority and MAC address. SW4 wins because its MAC address is lower than SW1's when breaking the priority tie.

  624. Question 624 of 906Refer to the exhibit. The IPv6 address for the LAN segment on router R2 must be configured using the EUI-64 format. When configured, which IPv6 address is produced by the router?

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    Correct answer: D. D. 2001:db8:d955:1008:10D8:BAFF:FEC2:1

    EUI-64 creates an interface identifier by inserting FFFE into the middle of the MAC address and flipping the universal local bit. This process transforms the MAC into the correct extended identifier for the IPv6 prefix.

  625. Question 625 of 906Refer to the exhibit. The LACP EtherChannel is configured, and the last change is to modify the interfaces on SwitchA to respond to packets received, but not to initiate negotiation. The interface range gigabitethernet0/0/0-15 command is entered. What must be configured next?

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    Correct answer: D. D. SwitchA(config-if-range)#channel-group 1 mode passive

    LACP passive mode places an interface in a listening state where it responds to incoming LACP packets but does not initiate negotiation. This directly satisfies the requirement to respond without actively starting the negotiation process.

  626. Question 626 of 906Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer started to configure two directly-connected routers as shown. Which command sequence must the engineer configure on R2 so that the two routers become OSPF neighbors? Correct answer

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    Correct answer: A. A. interface GigabitEthernet0/1 ip ospf 1 area 1

    OSPF neighbor adjacencies require both routers to share the same subnet and area configuration. Applying the ip ospf 1 area 1 command directly on the interface ensures it matches the neighboring router parameters for successful adjacency formation.

  627. Question 627 of 906Refer to the exhibit. An engineer booted a new switch and applied this configuration via the console port. Which additional configuration must be applied to allow administrators to authenticate directly to global configuration mode via Telnet using a local username and password?

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    Correct answer: B. B. R1(config)#username admin privilege 15 secret p@ss1234 R1(config-if)#line vty 0 4 – R1(config-line)#login local

    Assigning privilege level 15 to a local user grants immediate access to privileged EXEC and global configuration modes upon login. Using the login local command under the VTY lines enforces local authentication, making standard line passwords unnecessary.

  628. Question 628 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Which address will the client contact to renew their IP address when the current lease expires?

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    Correct answer: C. C. 192.168.25.100

    A DHCP client unicasts its renewal request directly to the DHCP server that originally granted the lease. The server IP address is explicitly listed in the client output, eliminating the need to contact the default gateway or broadcast address.

  629. Question 629 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Which route does R1 select for traffic that is destined to 192.168.16.2?

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    Correct answer: D. D. 192.168.16.0/27

    Cisco routers use the longest prefix match rule to select the most specific route in the routing table. The /27 route provides the most granular match for the destination IP, overriding the broader /21, /24, and /26 options.

  630. Question 630 of 906Refer to the exhibit. User traffic originating within site B is failing to reach an application hosted on IP address 192.168.0.10, which is located within site A. What is determined by the routing table?

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    Correct answer: B. B. The lack of a default route prevents delivery of the traffic.

    A router requires either a specific route or a default route to forward packets to unknown destinations. Because the routing table lacks an entry for the destination network and has no gateway of last resort, the traffic is dropped.

  631. Question 631 of 906Refer to the exhibit. If OSPF is running on this network, how does Router2 handle traffic from Site B to 10.10.13.128/25 at Site A?

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    Correct answer: D. D. It cannot send packets to 10.10.13.128/25.

    Routers forward packets based on the longest prefix match in the routing table. Because Router Two lacks a route and has no gateway of last resort, it cannot send packets to the destination.

  632. Question 632 of 906Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is configuring the HO router. Which IPv6 address configuration must be applied to the router fa0/1 interface for the router to assign a unique 64-bit IPv6 address to itself?

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    Correct answer: B. B. ipv6 address 2001:DB8:0:1:C401:42FF:FE0F:7/64

    The modified EUI 64 process inserts FFFE into the middle of the MAC address and flips the seventh bit. Flipping the bit changes the first byte from C6 to C4, which makes the second option correct.

  633. Question 633 of 906Refer to the exhibit. When running EIGRP, what is required for RouterA to exchange routing updates with RouterC?

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    Correct answer: A. A. AS numbers must be changed to match on all the routers

    Autonomous system numbers must match for routers to form adjacencies. Loopback interfaces are not required to form neighbor relationships, so they can be eliminated as a solution.

  634. Question 634 of 906Refer to the exhibit. SW1 is configured as the primary root for VLAN 10 and SW2 is configured as the secondary root. Which switch becomes root if the primary switch fails and all links are of equal speed?

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    Correct answer: B. B. SW2

    Spanning Tree selects the bridge with the lowest bridge ID as the root. Because switch two is configured as the secondary root, it has the next lowest bridge ID and takes over when switch one fails.

  635. Question 635 of 906Refer to the exhibit. How should the configuration be updated to allow PC1 and PC2 access to the Internet?

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    Correct answer: D. D. Configure ip nat inside on GigabitEthernet0/0 and ip nat outside on GigabitEthernet0/1

    Network Address Translation requires explicitly defining inside and outside interfaces. Without these commands, translation fails even if the ACL and NAT rules are correct.

  636. Question 636 of 906Refer to the exhibit. What is the result if Gig1/11 receives an STP BPDU?

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    Correct answer: C. C. The port goes into error-disable state.

    BPDU Guard places an access port into error disabled state upon receiving a bridge protocol data unit. This protects against accidental connections to switches that could create loops.

  637. Question 637 of 906What is represented beginning with line 1 and ending with line 5 within this JSON schema?

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    Correct answer: C. C. array

    Square brackets in JSON define an array, which can hold multiple elements. Curly braces define objects, whereas keys and values represent the data pairs within those structures.

  638. Question 638 of 906Refer to the exhibit. An engineer assumes a configuration task from a peer. Router A must establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with neighbor 172.1.1.1. The output displays the status of the adjacency after 2 hours. What is the next step in the configuration process for the routers to establish an adjacency?

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    Correct answer: A. A. Configure router A to use the same MTU size as router B.

    Open Shortest Path First adjacencies stuck in the exchange state commonly indicate a maximum transmission unit mismatch between neighbors. Routers reject database description packets larger than their local interface configuration, so aligning the maximum transmission unit size resolves the stall.

  639. Question 639 of 906Refer to the exhibit. A packet sourced from 10.10.10.1 is destined for 10.10.8.14. What is the subnet mask of the destination route?

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    Correct answer: B. B. 255.255.255.240

    The subnet mask is determined by the prefix length displayed in the routing table. The destination IP address falls within the directly connected twenty-eight bit network, which translates exactly to a subnet mask of 255.255.255.240.

  640. Question 640 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Which command do you enter so that R1 advertises the loopback0 interface to the BGP peers?

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    Correct answer: A. A. Network 172.16.1.32 mask 255.255.255.224

    Border Gateway Protocol requires an exact prefix and subnet mask match for the network command to advertise a route. The interface belongs to the subnet 172.16.1.32, meaning the command must use that exact network address along with the matching 255.255.255.224 mask.

  641. Question 641 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Given the output for this command, if the router ID has not been manually set, what router ID will OSPF use for this router?

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    Correct answer: C. C. 172.16.5.1

    Open Shortest Path First prefers the highest IP address on a loopback interface when choosing its router identifier. Comparing the available loopback addresses, 172.16.5.1 is higher than 10.154.154.1, making it the selected identifier.

  642. Question 642 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Which command would you use to configure a static route on Router1 to network 192.168.202.0/24 with a nondefault administrative distance?

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    Correct answer: B. B. router1(config)#ip route 192.168.202.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2 5

    The correct IOS syntax for a static route with a modified administrative distance is ip route <network> <mask> <next-hop> <distance>. Option B correctly defines the destination network, mask, next-hop address, and sets a nondefault administrative distance of five.

  643. Question 643 of 906Refer to the exhibit. What is the metric of the route to the 192.168.10.33/28 subnet?

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    Correct answer: E. E. 193

    In a Cisco routing table entry, the first number inside the brackets is the administrative distance, and the second number is the routing metric. The IP address belongs to the thirty-two subnet, which shows a metric of one hundred ninety-three.

  644. Question 644 of 906Refer to the exhibit. What does the host do when using the IPv4 Preferred function?

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    Correct answer: B. B. It indicates the IPv4 address is valid and currently in use by the host.

    The preferred state indicates that an IPv4 address is valid, verified, and actively used for communication. It confirms the address lease is still valid, but it does not force the DHCP server to assign the exact same address during future renewals.

  645. Question 645 of 906Refer to the exhibit. R1 learns all routes via OSPF. Which command configures a backup static route on R1 to reach the 192.168.20.0/24 network via R3?

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    Correct answer: A. A. R1(config)#ip route 192.168.20.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.30.2 111

    A floating static route must have a higher administrative distance than the primary dynamic routing protocol. OSPF defaults to administrative distance 110, so setting the static route to 111 ensures it only appears when the OSPF route fails.

  646. Question 646 of 906Refer to the exhibit. VLAN 23 is being implemented between SW1 and SW2. The command show interface ethernet0/0 switchport has been issued on SW1. Ethernet0/0 on SW1 is the uplink to SW2. Which command when entered on the uplink interface allows PC1 and PC2 to communicate without impact to the communication between PC11 and PC12?

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    Correct answer: C. C. switchport trunk allowed vian add 23

    The add keyword appends a specific VLAN to the existing allowed list rather than replacing it. Without add, the command overwrites the list and drops traffic for other active VLANs, causing an outage.

  647. Question 647 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Which command must be issued to enable a floating static default route on router A?

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    Correct answer: A. A. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.2 10

    A floating static route requires a higher administrative distance than the primary route to stay inactive until a failure occurs. The primary default route has an administrative distance of 1, so setting the backup to 10 ensures it only activates during an outage.

  648. Question 648 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Which switch in this configuration will be elected as the root bridge? SW1 0C:E4:85:71:03:80 – SW2 0C:0E:1A:22:05:97 – SW3 0C:E0:A1:1A:3C:9D – SW4 0C:00:18:A1:B3:19

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    Correct answer: B. B. SW2

    Spanning Tree Protocol elects the root bridge based on the lowest bridge ID, which combines priority and MAC address. SW2 wins this election because it has the lowest configured priority value of 4096.

  649. Question 649 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Users on existing VLAN 100 can reach sites on the Internet. Which action must the administrator take to establish connectivity to the Internet for users in VLAN 200?

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    Correct answer: D. D. Update the NAT_INSIDE_RANGES ACL.

    Port Address Translation uses an access control list to define which internal subnets are translated. Because the existing list only permits VLAN 100, the administrator must update it to include the VLAN 200 subnet.

  650. Question 650 of 906A technician receives a report of network slowness and the issue has been isolated to the interface FastEthernet0/13. What is the root cause of the issue?

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    Correct answer: C. C. physical errors

    A high number of CRC errors indicates a physical layer problem, such as faulty cabling or electromagnetic interference. These Layer 1 issues corrupt frames and force retransmissions, directly causing network slowness.

  651. Question 651 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Which format matches the Modified EUI-64 IPv6 interface address for the network 2001:db8::/64?

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    Correct answer: D. D. 2001:db8::5200:00ff:fe04:0000/64

    Modified EUI-64 creates an interface identifier by inserting FFFE into the MAC address and flipping the seventh bit. This bit inversion changes the first octet from 50 to 52, resulting in the correct IPv6 address.

  652. Question 652 of 906Refer to the exhibit. With which metric was the route to host 172.16.0.202 learned?

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    Correct answer: C. C. 38443

    The destination address falls within the 172.16.0.128/25 subnet, which matches the OSPF route. In a Cisco routing table, the second number inside the brackets represents the route metric, which is 38443.

  653. Question 653 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Which switch in this configuration will be elected as the root bridge? SW1 0C:B4:86:22:42:37 – SW2 0C:0B:15:22:05:97 – SW3 0C:0B:15:1A:3C:9D – SW4 0C:B0:18:A1:B3:19

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    Correct answer: C. C. SW3

    Spanning Tree Protocol uses the lowest bridge ID to elect the root bridge. If priorities tie, the lowest MAC address becomes the tiebreaker, allowing SW3 to win the election over SW4.

  654. Question 654 of 906Refer to the exhibit. What does route 10.0.1.3/32 represent in the routing table?

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    Correct answer: B. B. a single destination address

    A 32 subnet mask indicates a host route that represents exactly one specific IP address. This differs from broader subnet masks which represent entire network segments or ranges of addresses.

  655. Question 655 of 906Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator must prevent the switch Cat9K-2 IP address from being visible in LLDP without disabling the protocol. Which action must be taken to complete the task?

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    Correct answer: D. D. Configure the no lldp tlv-select management-address command globally on Cat9K-2.

    The management IP address is carried in the management-address TLV within LLDP. Using the no lldp tlv-select management-address command globally on Cat9K-2 suppresses the advertisement of the IP address while keeping LLDP operational.

  656. Question 656 of 906Refer to the exhibit. What must be configured to enable 802.11w on the WLAN?

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    Correct answer: C. C. Set PMF to Required.

    802.11w is implemented through Protected Management Frames, also known as PMF. Setting PMF to Required enforces management frame protection, which directly satisfies the requirement for enabling 802.11w.

  657. Question 657 of 906What is represented by the word "fe5/42" within this JSON schema?

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    Correct answer: C. C. value

    In JSON syntax, values appear to the right of a colon in a key value pair. In the entry port colon fe5/42, the string fe5-4-2 is the value associated with the key named port.

  658. Question 658 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Which feature is enabled by this configuration?

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    Correct answer: C. C. a dynamic NAT address pool

    The command defines a range of global IP addresses for translation. This creates a dynamic Network Address Translation pool, distinguishing it from static NAT or Port Address Translation configurations.

  659. Question 659 of 906Refer to the exhibit. R1 has just received a packet from host A that is destined to host B. Which route in the routing table is used by R1 to reach host B?

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    Correct answer: B. B. 10.10.13.0/25 [108/0] via 10.10.10.10

    When multiple routes point to the same destination prefix, the router selects the route with the lowest administrative distance. A configured administrative distance of 108 beats Open Shortest Path First at 110.

  660. Question 660 of 906Which interface is used to send traffic to the destination network?

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    Correct answer: C. C. F0/12

    Routers first compare administrative distance and prefer Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol routes over Routing Information Protocol. Between equal protocol routes, the lower metric wins, making the route via F0/12 the preferred path.

  661. Question 661 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Based on the interface counters shown, which condition is least likely to be present on this interface?

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    Correct answer: D. D. duplex mismatch

    A duplex mismatch typically generates collisions, late collisions, and CRC errors. An interface operating in full-duplex with zero collisions makes this condition highly unlikely.

  662. Question 662 of 906Refer to the exhibit. After applying this configuration to router R1, a network engineer is verifying the implementation. If all links are operating normally, and the engineer sends a series of packets from PC1 to PC3, how are the packets routed?

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    Correct answer: D. D. They are routed to 172.16.20.2

    The router installs the default route with the lowest administrative distance into the routing table. Because the primary route via 172.16.20.2 has a lower distance than the backup route, all traffic matches and uses this default path.

  663. Question 663 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Which next-hop IP address does Router1 use for packets destined to host 10.10.13.158?

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    Correct answer: A. A. 10.10.10.9

    Router forwarding decisions rely on the longest-prefix match rule to select the best path. Because the slash twenty-eight subnet includes the destination host and is more specific than broader routes, the router selects its next hop.

  664. Question 664 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Marketing-SW1 MAC Address Table: VLAN | MAC Address | Port 101 | AAAA.AAAA.AA01 | Gi1/0 (PC-1) 101 | AAAA.AAAA.AA02 | Gi1/2 (PC-2) 101 | AAAA.AAAA.AA03 | Gi1/3 (PC-3) PC-4 is connected to interface Gi1/4. What does the switch do when PC-4 sends a frame to PC-1?

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    Correct answer: C. C. It adds PC-4's source MAC address to the table and forwards the frame only out the port toward PC-1.

    Switches learn source MAC addresses upon receiving a frame and check the table for the destination. Because the destination MAC is already known, the switch performs a direct unicast forward instead of flooding the frame.

  665. Question 665 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration enables DHCP addressing for hosts connected to interface FastEthernet0/1 on router R3?

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    Correct answer: D. D. interface FastEthernet0/1 ip helper-address 10.0.1.1 ! access-list 100 permit udp host 10.0.1.1 eq bootps host 10.148.2.1

    A router needs an IP helper address to forward local DHCP broadcasts to a remote server. Returning DHCP traffic is permitted using UDP port 67, known as bootps, which must be explicitly allowed by any inbound access lists.

  666. Question 666 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 must be configured to reach the 10.0.3.0/24 network from the 10.0.1.0/24 segment. Which command must be used to configure the route?

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    Correct answer: D. D. ip route 10.0.3.0 255.255.255.0 10.0.4.3

    Cisco IOS requires a destination network, subnet mask, and next hop address for static routing. Wildcard masks are used in routing protocols and access lists, while route add is a host operating system command rather than a router command.

  667. Question 667 of 906Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is bringing up a new circuit to the MPLS provider on the Gi0/1 interface of Router 1. The new circuit uses eBGP and learns the route to VLAN25 from the BGP path. What is the expected behavior for the traffic flow for route 10.10.13.0/25?

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    Correct answer: C. C. Traffic to 10.10.13.0/25 is forwarded out Gi0/1 after the eBGP-learned route replaces the OSPF route in the routing table.

    Cisco IOS prefers the route with the lowest administrative distance when learning the same prefix from multiple sources. Because external BGP has an administrative distance of 20, it replaces the OSPF route, which has a higher distance of 110.

  668. Question 668 of 906Refer to the exhibit. What is the next step to complete the implementation for the partial NAT configuration shown?

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    Correct answer: D. D. Configure the NAT outside interface.

    Network Address Translation requires both an inside and outside interface assignment to function. The trap is picking options that modify the ACL or pool, but the statistics clearly show the outside interface is completely missing.

  669. Question 669 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Which command provides this output?

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    Correct answer: B. B. show cdp neighbor

    The Cisco Discovery Protocol reveals directly connected neighbors using fields like capability codes, platform, and port ID. Other show commands focus on routing tables or interface statistics rather than neighbor discovery details.

  670. Question 670 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about the interface that generated the output is true?

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    Correct answer: A. A. A syslog message is generated when a violation occurs.

    Port security violation mode determines the action taken when a violation occurs. In shutdown mode, the interface is placed into an error-disabled state and generates a syslog message, making it the most restrictive option.

  671. Question 671 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Which protocol should be permitted to provide secure VTY access to the router?

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    Correct answer: D. D. SSH

    Secure Shell provides encrypted remote command-line access to virtual terminal lines. Telnet is eliminated because it sends data in clear text, creating a security vulnerability on the network.

  672. Question 672 of 906Refer to the exhibit. How does router R1 handle traffic to the 172.16.1.4/30 subnet?

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    Correct answer: D. D. It load-balances traffic over 172.16.9.5 and 172.16.4.4

    Equal-cost multipath routing allows a router to forward traffic across multiple paths with identical metrics. The router installs both EIGRP routes and actively load-balances the traffic rather than selecting a single primary path.

  673. Question 673 of 906Refer to the exhibit. When router R1 is sending traffic to IP address 10.56.192.1, which interface or next hop address does it use to route the packet?

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    Correct answer: A. A. 10.56.0.1

    Routers forward packets to the longest prefix match in the routing table, falling back to the default route if no specific match exists. Destination 10.56.192.1 falls outside the listed connected subnets, so the default route is the only valid path.

  674. Question 674 of 906What is represented by the word "firewall" within this JSON schema?

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    Correct answer: B. B. key

    In JSON syntax, a key is the name in a key-value pair that appears before the colon. In the entry { "firewall": "FW37", "port": "te23" }, the word "firewall" is the key that identifies the associated value.

  675. Question 675 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration parameter is preventing host С from reaching the internet?

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    Correct answer: C. C. default gateway

    A default gateway is essential for hosts to communicate outside their local subnet. The configured gateway address must exactly match the router interface IP, or external traffic will fail to route correctly.

  676. Question 676 of 906Refer to the exhibit. The DHCP server and clients are connected to the same switch. What is the next step to complete the DHCP configuration to allow clients on VLAN 1 to receive addresses from the DHCP server?

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    Correct answer: C. C. Configure ip dhcp snooping trust command on the interface that is connected to the DHCP server.

    When DHCP snooping is enabled, all switch ports are untrusted by default and will drop DHCP server responses. You must explicitly configure the port connected to the legitimate DHCP server as trusted using the ip dhcp snooping trust command.

  677. Question 677 of 906Refer to the exhibit. A static route must be configured on R86 to forward traffic for the 172.16.34.0/29 network, which resides on R14. Which command must be used to fulfill the request?

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    Correct answer: B. B. ip route 172.16.34.0 255.255.255.248 10.73.65.65

    A static route requires the destination network prefix, its subnet mask, and the next-hop IP address. The correct command uses the /29 mask and points to the next hop, while the distractors use wildcard masks or point to the destination itself.

  678. Question 678 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Web traffic is coming in from the WAN interface. Which route takes precedence when the router is processing traffic destined for the LAN network at 10.0.10.0/24?

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    Correct answer: A. A. via next-hop 10.0.1.5

    When multiple routing protocols provide routes with identical prefix lengths, the router selects the route with the lowest administrative distance. Internal EIGRP has a lower administrative distance than OSPF, making the EIGRP route the preferred path.

  679. Question 679 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 currently is configured to use R3 as the primary route to the internet, and the route uses the default administrative distance settings. A network engineer must configure R1 so that it uses R2 as a backup, but only if R3 goes down. Which command must the engineer configure on R1 so that it correctly uses R2 as a backup route, without changing the administrative distance configuration on the link to R3?

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    Correct answer: B. B. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.200.230 6

    A floating static route is created by assigning an administrative distance higher than the primary route. Setting the backup default route to an administrative distance of 6 ensures the primary route with the default distance of 1 remains active until it fails.

  680. Question 680 of 906Refer to the exhibit. When router R1 receives a packet with destination IP address 10.56.0.62, through which interface does it route the packet?

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    Correct answer: A. A. Vlan58

    The router uses the longest prefix match to determine the correct exit interface for a destination IP. The destination address falls within the range of the directly connected route, making its interface the chosen forwarding path.

  681. Question 681 of 906Refer to the exhibit. How many objects are present in the given JSON-encoded data?

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    Correct answer: C. C. Seven

    In JSON, curly braces define an object. Counting the root object and all nested attributes equals seven. Arrays are enclosed in square brackets and do not count as objects, eliminating the distractors.

  682. Question 682 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Router OldR is replacing another router on the network with the intention of having OldR and R2 exchange routes. After the engineer applied the initial OSPF configuration, the routes were still missing on both devices. Which command sequence must be issued before the clear ip ospf process command is entered to enable the neighbor relationship?

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    Correct answer: D. OldR(config-router)#no router-id 192.168.1.1

    Neighbors must have unique router IDs to form adjacencies. Removing the duplicate router ID allows the clearing process to assign a unique ID, whereas mismatched intervals prevent adjacencies entirely.

  683. Question 683 of 906Refer to the exhibit. What administrative distance has the route to 192.168.10.1?

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    Correct answer: B. B. 90

    The first number inside the brackets of a routing table entry is the administrative distance. Because the letter D indicates EIGRP and shows a distance of ninety, the correct value is ninety.

  684. Question 684 of 906Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring a router for user access via SSH. The service-password encryption command has been issued. The configuration must meet these requirements: • Create the username as CCUser. • Create the password as NA!2$cc. • Encrypt the user password. What must be configured to meet the requirements?

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    Correct answer: C. C. username CCUser secret NA!2$cc

    The command username CCUser secret stores the password using a secure one-way cryptographic hash. The service password-encryption command only applies weak Type 7 reversible encryption, so using the secret keyword is required to properly protect local user credentials.

  685. Question 685 of 906Refer to the exhibit. What is represented beginning with line 1 and ending with line 5?

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    Correct answer: D. D. array

    A JSON structure that begins with an opening square bracket and ends with a closing square bracket defines an array. While the array in this scenario contains multiple enclosed objects, the overall structure wrapping those items is classified as an array.

  686. Question 686 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration must be applied to the router that configures PAT to translate all addresses in VLAN 200 while allowing devices on VLAN 100 to use their own IP addresses?

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    Correct answer: A. A.

    Port address translation requires matching only the specific internal subnet that needs translation in the access control list. Allowing the entire class C subnet would accidentally translate the wrong virtual local area network, so restricting the wildcard mask to the specific block is required.

  687. Question 687 of 906Refer to the exhibit. { "Cisco Devices": [ { "name": "ASA – Security Device" }, { "name": "Cisco 1100 ASR Router" }, { "name": "Cisco 6800 Switch" } ] } What is missing from this output for it to be executed?

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    Correct answer: D. D. curly braket ( } ) at the end

    Valid JavaScript Object Notation requires balanced enclosing brackets to define an object. Because the configuration begins with an opening curly brace, adding the final closing curly brace at the end of the file completes the required structure for proper parsing.

  688. Question 688 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 is connected to a shared network 10.0.20.0/24 with routers R2 and R3. R3 has a LAN network 10.0.15.0/24 connected behind it. Router R1 is already configured with its directly connected networks, but traffic destined for the LAN on R3 is not reachable. Which command should be configured on R1 to enable connectivity to the R3 LAN?

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    Correct answer: D. D. ip route 10.0.15.0 255.255.255.0 10.0.20.3

    A static route requires the exact destination subnet and a valid next-hop IP address. The correct route targets the 10.0.15.0/24 LAN via R3's shared interface IP, eliminating options with incorrect masks or unreachable next-hops.

  689. Question 689 of 906Refer to the exhibit. An administrator configures four switches for local authentication using passwords that are stored as a cryptographic hash. The four switches must also support SSH access for administrators to manage the network infrastructure. Which switch is configured correctly to meet these requirements?

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    Correct answer: C. C. SW3

    Secure local authentication requires creating accounts with the secret command to store passwords as hashes. Applying login local under VTY lines enforces this database for remote access, whereas basic password commands leave credentials in clear text.

  690. Question 690 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Which switch becomes the root bridge?

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    Correct answer: A. A. SW 1 – Bridge Priority – 8192 – mac-address 00:10:a1:30:eb:38

    Spanning Tree Protocol selects the root bridge using the lowest bridge ID, evaluating priority first and MAC address second. Switch one wins the tiebreaker over switch two because its MAC address is numerically lower.

  691. Question 691 of 906What is represented by the word "switch" within this JSON schema?

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    Correct answer: A. A. key

    JSON structures data as key-value pairs where the left element identifies the attribute name. Therefore, the word functions as a key, while the right side holds the value assigned to that specific data field.

  692. Question 692 of 906Refer to the exhibit. The IPv6 address for the LAN segment on router R2 must be configured using the EUI-64 format. Which address must be used?

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    Correct answer: A. A. ipv6 address 2001:DB8:D8D2:1009::/64 eui-64

    EUI-64 configuration requires providing only the network prefix, allowing the router to auto-generate the host identifier. The router modifies the interface MAC by inserting FFFE and flipping the seventh bit, making the full address command unnecessary.

  693. Question 693 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Which network prefix was learned via EIGRP?

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    Correct answer: D. D. 192.168.2.0/24

    Routing tables indicate EIGRP-learned routes with the letter D, representing Diffusing Update Algorithm, alongside the default administrative distance of 90. This distinct protocol tag separates dynamically learned EIGRP prefixes from connected or statically defined routes.

  694. Question 694 of 906Refer to the exhibit. A newly configured PC fails to connect to the internet by using TCP port 80 to www.cisco.com. Which setting must be modified for the connection to work?

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    Correct answer: B. B. DNS Servers

    Browsing to a web address requires DNS resolution to convert the hostname into an IP address. Since the configuration shows zeroed DNS servers, the client cannot resolve the domain, completely preventing the HTTP connection.

  695. Question 695 of 906Refer to the exhibit. SW2 is replaced because of a hardware failure. A network engineer starts to configure SW2 by copying the fa0/1 interface configuration from SW1. Which command must be configured on the fa0/1 interface of SW2 to enable PC1 to connect to PC2?

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    Correct answer: A. A. switchport mode trunk

    Switch links carrying multiple VLANs must be explicitly configured as trunks to pass traffic. Because the existing interface defaults to dynamic auto, it waits for negotiation, so forcing trunk mode actively establishes the necessary VLAN pathway.

  696. Question 696 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Wireless LAN access must be set up to force all clients from the NA WLAN to authenticate against the local database. The WLAN is configured for local EAP authentication. The time that users access the network must not be limited. Which action completes this configuration?

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    Correct answer: C. C. Set the Lifetime (seconds) value to 0.

    Wireless controller local databases use a lifetime timer to control how long credentials remain valid. Setting this value to zero removes the time restriction, ensuring users maintain uninterrupted network access without expiring.

  697. Question 697 of 906Refer to the exhibit. A new VLAN and switch are added to the network. A remote engineer configures OldSwitch and must ensure that the configuration meets these requirements: • accommodates current configured VLANs • expands the range to include VLAN 20 • allows for IEEE standard support for virtual LANs. Which configuration on the NewSwitch side of the link meets these requirements?

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    Correct answer: D. D. no switchport trunk encapsulation isl switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport trunk allowed vlan add 20

    IEEE standard trunking requires 802.1Q encapsulation rather than the proprietary ISL protocol. Appending VLAN 20 to the existing allowed list seamlessly expands the range while preserving current VLAN connectivity across the trunk link.

  698. Question 698 of 906Refer to the exhibit. How does SW2 interact with other switches in this VTP domain?

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    Correct answer: D. D. It forwards only the VTP advertisements that it receives on its trunk ports.

    A switch in VTP transparent mode does not process or modify its local VLAN database based on received advertisements. It simply forwards incoming VTP advertisements unchanged out its other trunk ports, acting as a relay.

  699. Question 699 of 906Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is configuring a new router on the network and applied this configuration. Which additional configuration allows the PC to obtain its IP address from a DHCP server?

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    Correct answer: A. A. Configure the ip helper-address 172.16.2.2 command under interface Gi0/0.

    A router blocks broadcast traffic by default, so a DHCP Discover message from a client cannot reach a server on a different subnet. Configuring the IP helper-address command on the receiving interface forwards these broadcasts as unicasts to the remote server.

  700. Question 700 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Which switch becomes the root of the spanning tree? Switch 1 – BID: 32778 0018.184e.3c00 Switch 2 – BID: 24586 001a.e3ff.a680 Switch 3 – BID: 28682 0022.55cf.cc00 Switch 4 – BID: 64000 4e15.8403.08f

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    Correct answer: B. B. Switch 2

    Spanning Tree Protocol selects the root bridge by identifying the switch with the lowest Bridge ID. Switch 2 has the lowest BID among the listed options, which makes it the spanning tree root.

  701. Question 701 of 906Refer to the exhibit. After the election process, what is the root bridge in the HQ LAN? Switch 1: 0C:E0:38:81:32:58 Switch 2: 0C:0E:15:22:1A:61 Switch 3: 0C:0E:15:1D:3C:9A Switch 4: 0C:E0:19:A1:4D:16

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    Correct answer: C. C. Switch 3

    Spanning Tree Protocol uses the lowest Bridge ID to elect the root bridge. Assuming default priorities, the election falls to the lowest MAC address, which belongs to Switch three.

  702. Question 702 of 906What is represented by line 3 within this JSON schema? [ {"switch": "SW_dallas", "port": "ge16"}, {"load balancer": "LB_munich", "port": "te0/26"}, {"VPN concentrator": "VPN_toronto", "port": "ge8/15"} ]

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    Correct answer: A. A. object

    Line three is enclosed in curly braces, which defines a JSON object containing multiple key-value pairs. The surrounding square brackets denote a JSON array, while the individual entries themselves are objects.

  703. Question 703 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Why can the root bridge not be determined from the information shown?

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    Correct answer: B. B. SW3 and SW4 have the same STP priority, and no MAC addresses are provided.

    The correct answer proves that Spanning Tree Protocol uses bridge priority first, then MAC address, to elect the root. The trap is that equal priorities require a tie-breaker, so without MAC addresses, the final root cannot be determined.

  704. Question 704 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Which router or router group are NTP clients?

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    Correct answer: D. D. R1, R2, and R3

    A router acts as an NTP client when it uses the ntp server command to synchronize its clock. Having the ntp master command configured does not prevent a router from also acting as a client.

  705. Question 705 of 906Which interface is used to send traffic to the destination network? D 10.245.54.0/29 [90/9388] via G0/16 D 10.245.54.0/29 [90/50147] via G0/21 R 10.245.54.0/29 [120/15] via G0/5 R 10.245.54.0/29 [120/13] via G0/4

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    Correct answer: D. D. G0/16

    The router first evaluates administrative distance to choose the preferred routing source. EIGRP internal routes have an administrative distance of 90, beating RIP, so the router then picks the lowest EIGRP metric.

  706. Question 706 of 906Refer to the exhibit. After a recent internal security audit, the network administrator decided to block all P2P-capable devices from the selected SSID. Which configuration setting must the administrator apply?

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    Correct answer: D. D. Set the P2P Block Action to Drop.

    Wireless LAN controllers use the P2P Block Action setting to manage peer-to-peer traffic. Setting it to Drop directly satisfies the audit requirement by actively blocking peer-to-peer communication on theSSID.

  707. Question 707 of 906Refer to the exhibit. After configuring a new static route on the CPE, the engineer entered this series of commands to verify that the new configuration is operating normally. When is the static default route installed into the routing table?

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    Correct answer: C. C. when the default route learned over external BGP becomes invalid

    A floating static route remains hidden until the primary route is removed from the routing table. Because external BGP has a lower administrative distance, the static route installs only when the BGP default route becomes invalid.

  708. Question 708 of 906Refer to the exhibit. In which structure does the word "warning" directly reside?

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    Correct answer: A. A. array

    Square brackets in JSON denote an array, which holds an ordered list of values. The trap is confusing the container type with the data type, but the element directly resides inside the array structure.

  709. Question 709 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 Fa0/0 cannot ping router R3 Fa0/1. Which action must be taken on router R1 to help resolve the configuration issue?

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    Correct answer: C. C. configure a static route with 10.10.10.2 as the next hop to reach the 20.20.20.0/24 network

    Routers require valid routes to forward packets to remote subnets. Since R1 lacks a path to the 20.20.20.0 network, configuring a static route pointing to the next hop resolves the reachability failure.

  710. Question 710 of 906Refer to the exhibit. If R1 receives a packet destined to 172.16.1.1, to which IP address does it send the packet?

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    Correct answer: A. A. 192.168.14.4

    Routers forward packets using the longest prefix match rule. Because the destination is not covered by the specific 172.16.1.128 subnet, the router uses the default route to forward the packet to 192.168.14.4.

  711. Question 711 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 is running three different routing protocols. Which route characteristic is used by the router to forward the packet that it receives for destination IP 172.16.32.1?

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    Correct answer: A. A. longest prefix

    When multiple routing protocols learn routes to the same network, the router first applies the longest prefix match rule. Administrative distance is only evaluated when matching routes have identical prefix lengths.

  712. Question 712 of 906Refer to the exhibit. When an administrator executes the show ip route command on router D to view its routing table, which value is displayed for the administrative distance for the route to network 192.168.1.0?

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    Correct answer: A. A. 110

    The router installs the route with the lowest administrative distance. Because OSPF has an administrative distance of 110, it beats the external EIGRP route with an administrative distance of 170, making it the preferred source.

  713. Question 713 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Traffic sourced from the loopback0 interface is trying to connect via SSH to the host at 10.0.1.15. What is the next hop to the destination address?

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    Correct answer: A. A. 192.168.0.7

    The router forwards packets using the longest prefix match in the routing table. The destination falls within the specific 10.0.1.0/28 subnet, directing traffic to the corresponding next hop.

  714. Question 714 of 906Refer to the exhibit. The DHCP server is configured with a DHCP pool for each of the subnets represented. Which command must be configured on switch SW1 to allow DHCP clients on VLAN 10 to receive dynamic IP addresses from the DHCP server?

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    Correct answer: C. C. SW1(config-if)#ip helper-address 192.168.20.2

    A router or switch forwards broadcast packets to a specific helper address. Configuring the IP helper command on the VLAN interface relays client requests to the remote server.

  715. Question 715 of 906Refer to the exhibit. An LACP EtherChannel between two directly connected switches is in the configuration process. Which command must be configured on switch SW2's Gi0/1-2 interfaces to establish the channel to SW1?

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    Correct answer: C. C. channel-group 1 mode active

    Link Aggregation Control Protocol requires at least one side to actively negotiate. Configuring the channel group to active mode ensures the switch sends negotiation packets to form the bundle.

  716. Question 716 of 906Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must configure a floating static route on an external EIGRP network. The destination subnet is the /29 on the LAN interface of R86. Which command must be executed on R14?

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    Correct answer: C. C. ip route 10.80.65.0 255.255.255.248 10.73.65.66 171

    Floating static routes require an administrative distance higher than the dynamic routing protocol. Setting the distance to 171 ensures the route only appears when the primary external path fails.

  717. Question 717 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Packets received by the router from BGP enter via a serial interface at 209.165.201.1. Each route is present within the routing table. Which interface is used to forward traffic with a destination IP of 10.1.1.19?

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    Correct answer: A. A. F0/0

    Routers always select the longest prefix match when making forwarding decisions. The destination maps to a specific subnet, forcing the router to select the associated interface regardless of administrative distance.

  718. Question 718 of 906Refer to the exhibit. What does router R1 use as its OSPF router-ID?

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    Correct answer: C. C. 172.16.15.10

    The router selects the highest IP address on a loopback interface when the ID is not manually set. Because the highest loopback address takes priority, it becomes the OSPF router ID automatically.

  719. Question 719 of 906Refer to the exhibit. An administrator must connect SW_1 and the printer to the network. SW_2 requires DTP to be used for the connection to SW_1. The printer is configured as an access port with VLAN 5. Which set of commands completes the connectivity?

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    Correct answer: C. C. switchport mode dynamic desirable switchport trunk allowed vlan add 5

    Configuring switchport mode dynamic desirable causes the switch to actively initiate DTP negotiation. Since SW_2 is dynamic auto, the combination forms a trunk. The command switchport trunk allowed vlan add 5 ensures VLAN 5 is permitted across the link.

  720. Question 720 of 906Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer must configure the link with these requirements: Consume as few IP addresses as possible. Leave at least two additional useable IP addresses for future growth. Which set of configurations must be applied?

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    Correct answer: C. C. R1(config-if)#ip address 10.10.10.1 255.255.255.248 R2(config-if)#ip address 10.10.10.4 255.255.255.248

    A slash 29 mask provides exactly six usable host addresses. After assigning two addresses to the routers, four usable addresses remain, meeting the future growth requirement while conserving IP space.

  721. Question 721 of 906Refer to the exhibit. C-router is to be used as a router-on-a-stick to route between the VLANs. All the interfaces have been properly configured and IP routing is operational. The hosts in the VLANs have been configured with the appropriate default gateway. What is true about this configuration?

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    Correct answer: D. D. No further routing configuration is required.

    A router automatically routes between directly connected networks. Because the prompt confirms all subinterfaces are configured and IP routing is operational, no dynamic routing protocol is required for local intervlan routing.

  722. Question 722 of 906Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is updating the configuration on router R1 to connect a new branch office to the company network. R2 has been configured correctly. Which command must the engineer configure so that devices at the new site communicate with the main office?

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    Correct answer: B. B. ip route 172.25.25.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.2

    R1 needs a static route to the remote LAN that points to the next hop address. The next hop is R2's transit interface IP address, allowing traffic to successfully traverse the link between the two sites.

  723. Question 723 of 906Refer to the exhibit. After you apply the given configuration to a router, the DHCP clients behind the device cannot communicate with hosts outside of their subnet. Which action is most likely to correct the problem?

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    Correct answer: D. D. Configure the default gateway

    The DHCP pool lacks a default router command. Without a configured default gateway, clients cannot send traffic to remote networks. Adding the router interface IP as the default router resolves this issue.

  724. Question 724 of 906Refer to the exhibit. What is the metric for the route to the 192.168.10.33 host?

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    Correct answer: D. D. 193

    Host 192.168.10.33 falls within the 192.168.10.32 slash 28 subnet. In a Cisco routing table entry, the second number inside the brackets represents the metric, making 193 the correct value.

  725. Question 725 of 906Refer to the exhibit. An access-list is required to permit traffic from any host on interface Gi0/0 and deny traffic from interface Gi0/1. Which access list must be applied?

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    Correct answer: A. access-list 99 deny 192.168.0.0 0.0.255.255

    A standard access control list uses wildcard masks to filter traffic. The correct wildcard for a 16-bit subnet mask is 0.0.255.255, and list 99 properly scopes this rule.

  726. Question 726 of 906Refer to the exhibit. How many JSON objects, keys, and total list values are present in the structure?

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    Correct answer: D. D. One object, three keys, and six JSON list values

    A JSON structure is defined by its curly braces containing key-value pairs. The other options misinterpret the hierarchy by miscounting the nested arrays or treating individual lists as standalone objects.

  727. Question 727 of 906What is represented by the word "ge3/36" within this JSON schema?

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    Correct answer: A. A. value

    In JSON syntax, data assigned to a key is called the value. Because the word appears to the right of the colon inside quotation marks, it represents the assigned value rather than the key itself.

  728. Question 728 of 906Refer to the exhibit. The link between PC1 and the switch is up, but it is performing poorly. Which interface condition is causing the performance problem?

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    Correct answer: B. B. There is a duplex mismatch on the interface.

    A duplex mismatch causes poor performance while keeping the link up. When one side is manually configured for speed and duplex and the other auto-negotiates, the auto side defaults to half duplex, creating collisions and CRC errors that degrade throughput.

  729. Question 729 of 906Refer to the exhibit. A packet sourced from 10.10.10.32 is destined for the Internet. What is the administrative distance for the destination route?

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    Correct answer: B. B. 1

    Traffic destined for the Internet matches the default route. The bracketed values in a routing table entry represent administrative distance and metric, where the first number indicates the route source's trustworthiness.

  730. Question 730 of 906What is represented by the word "LB13" within this JSON schema?

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    Correct answer: B. B. value

    In JSON, the text appearing to the right of the colon is the value assigned to the key. The key appears to the left, defining the attribute name for the associated data.

  731. Question 731 of 906Refer to the exhibit. SW1 MAC address table: VLAN | MAC Address | Port 50 | AAAA.AAAA.AA01 | Fa0/1 (Br-1) 50 | AAAA.AAAA.AA02 | Fa0/3 (Br-2) 50 | AAAA.AAAA.AA03 | Fa0/4 (Br-3) Br-4 is connected to Fa0/2 and sends a frame destined for Br-2. What does SW1 do?

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    Correct answer: C. C. It learns Br-4's source MAC address on Fa0/2 and forwards the frame only out Fa0/3 toward Br-2.

    A switch first learns the source MAC address of an incoming frame on the receiving port. Because the destination MAC is already in the MAC address table, the switch forwards the frame directly out the known port instead of flooding it.

  732. Question 732 of 906Refer to the exhibit. What is a reason for poor performance on the network interface?

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    Correct answer: C. C. The cable connection between the two devices is faulty.

    High CRC and input errors indicate a physical layer problem like faulty cabling or interference. Speed mismatches typically result in a downed interface state, whereas a defective cable allows connectivity with severely degraded performance.

  733. Question 733 of 906Refer to the exhibit. An administrator must turn off the Cisco Discovery Protocol on the port configured with the last usable address in the 10.0.0.252/30 subnet. Which command set meets the requirement?

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    Correct answer: A. A. interface gi0/1 no cdp enable

    The last usable address in a slash thirty subnet is assigned to the specific interface requiring modification. To disable Cisco Discovery Protocol on a single port, use the no cdp enable command under that interface configuration.

  734. Question 734 of 906Which interface condition is occurring in this output?

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    Correct answer: B. B. queueing

    Interface counters showing a high number of packets in the input and output queues alongside output drops indicate that traffic is exceeding the forwarding capacity. This classic queueing condition occurs when congestion forces packets to be buffered or dropped.

  735. Question 735 of 906Refer to the exhibit. PC1 regularly sends 1800 Mbps of traffic to the server. A network engineer needs to configure the EtherChannel to disable Port Channel 4 between SW1 and SW2 when the Ge0/0 and Ge0/1 ports on SW2 go down. Which configuration must the engineer apply to the switch?

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    Correct answer: A. A. SW2# configure terminal – SW2(config)# interface port-channel 4 SW2(config-if)# port-channel min-links 2

    The port-channel min-links command specifies the minimum number of active interfaces required to keep an EtherChannel operational. If active links drop below this threshold, the switch automatically disables the port-channel interface to prevent traffic loss.

  736. Question 736 of 906Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer must configure R1 so that it sends all packets destined to the 10.0.0.0/24 network to R3, and all packets destined to PC1 to R2. Which configuration must the engineer implement?

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    Correct answer: C. R1(config)#ip route 10.0.0.5 255.255.255.255 172.16.0.2

    Creating a host-specific route with a /32 mask ensures traffic for that single device follows a dedicated path. This longest prefix match overrides the broader /24 network route, directing traffic correctly while remaining options use incorrect masks or next hops.

  737. Question 737 of 906Refer to the exhibit. What is preventing host A from reaching the internet?

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    Correct answer: B. B. The DNS server IP address is incorrectly configured

    Internet browsing fails when the configured domain name system server address does not match the actual server. The host still has valid routing and a correct default gateway, but name resolution failures prevent translating web addresses into reachable IP addresses.

  738. Question 738 of 906What is represented by the word "port" within this JSON schema?

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    Correct answer: C. C. key

    In JSON syntax, a key is the string identifier that appears before the colon in a key-value pair. In an entry like "port": "te8/30", the word port acts as the key labeling its associated value.

  739. Question 739 of 906Refer to the exhibit. An engineer built a new L2 LACP EtherChannel between SW1 and SW2 and executed these show commands to verify the work. Which action establishes an LACP port channel?

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    Correct answer: B. B. Change the channel-group mode on SW1 to active or passive

    Link Aggregation Control Protocol requires at least one side to actively negotiate. Changing the static on mode to an LACP mode like active ensures both switches successfully negotiate and form the port channel.

  740. Question 740 of 906Refer to the exhibit. What is represented in line 4 within this JSON schema?

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    Correct answer: A. A. object

    In JSON, curly braces denote an object containing key value pairs. Arrays use square brackets, making the object structure the only correct choice for this specific syntax.

  741. Question 741 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Shortly after SiteA was connected to SiteB over a new single-mode fiber path, users at SiteA report intermittent connectivity issues when accessing applications at SiteB. Based on the interface output, what is the most likely cause of the issue?

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    Correct answer: A. A. The SiteA interface is experiencing a physical-layer or interface reliability issue.

    The SiteA interface shows degraded reliability at 166 out of 255. Decreased reliability indicates physical layer or data link errors like CRCs, which directly cause intermittent connectivity despite the interface being up.

  742. Question 742 of 906SW1 supports connectivity for a lobby conference room and must be secured. The engineer must limit the connectivity from PC1 to the SW1 and SW2 network. The MAC addresses allowed must be limited to two. Which configuration secures the conference room connectivity?

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    Correct answer: A. A. interface gi1/0/15 switchport port-security switchport port-security maximum 2

    Enabling port security and setting a maximum of two addresses restricts Layer two access on a switch port. The maximum keyword directly fulfills the requirement to limit learned addresses, whereas the other options lack this restriction.

  743. Question 743 of 906Refer to the exhibit. A public IPv6 address must be configured for internet access. Which command must be configured on the R2 WAN interface to the service provider?

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    Correct answer: C. C. ipv6 address 2001:db8:123:45::4/64

    A WAN interface facing an internet service provider requires a routable global unicast IPv6 address. The other options are invalid because link-local addresses are non-routable and anycast addresses serve specific load-balancing roles, not standard internet access.

  744. Question 744 of 906Refer to the exhibit. A packet is being sent across router R1 to host 172.16.0.14. What is the destination route for the packet?

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    Correct answer: D. D. 209.165.200.246 via Serial0/1/0

    When a destination IP lacks a specific matching entry in the routing table, the router uses the candidate default route. Because no specific subnet exists for the host, the forwarding decision correctly relies on the gateway of last resort.

  745. Question 745 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Packets are flowing from 192.168.10.1 to the destination at IP address 192.168.20.75. Which next hop will the router select for the packet?

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    Correct answer: B. B. 10.10.10.11

    Routers determine the best path by selecting the longest prefix match in the routing table. The slash twenty-five subnet is the most specific route that covers the destination IP, overriding broader matches.

  746. Question 746 of 906Refer to the exhibit. An engineer configured the New York router with static routes that point to the Atlanta and Washington sites. Which command must be configured on the Atlanta and Washington routers so that both sites are able to reach the loopback2 interface on the New York router?

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    Correct answer: A. A. ipv6 route::/0 Serial 0/0/0

    Branch routers require a return path to reach central hub networks, typically provided by an IPv6 default route. The other options fail because they either use incorrect IPv4 syntax or provide incomplete routing instructions.

  747. Question 747 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Which prefix does Router1 use for traffic to Host A?

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    Correct answer: D. D. 10.10.13.208/29

    The routing table uses the longest prefix match rule to select the most specific route for a destination. The slash twenty-nine subnet provides the tightest boundary that includes the target IP address.

  748. Question 748 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Which action must be taken so that neighboring devices rapidly discover switch Cat9300?

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    Correct answer: B. B. Configure the cdp timer 10 command on switch Cat9300.

    The CDP timer controls the interval at which a device broadcasts its discovery advertisements. Lowering the hold time would only expire neighbors faster, and configuring neighbors is outside the local switch scope.

  749. Question 749 of 906Refer to the exhibit. How will the router handle a packet destined for 192.0.2.156?

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    Correct answer: C. C. The router will forward the packet via Serial2.

    When an IP address does not match a specific route, the router forwards the packet using the default route. The default gateway points to a directly connected interface, dictating the exact outbound link.

  750. Question 750 of 906Refer to the exhibit. How must router A be configured so that it only sends Cisco Discovery Protocol information to router C?

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    Correct answer: B. B. #config t Router A (config)#cdp run – Router A (config)#interface gi0/0/0 Router A (config-if)#no cdp enable

    Cisco Discovery Protocol operates globally but can be disabled per interface using no cdp enable. Disabling it on the interface toward Router B ensures advertisements are only sent to Router C, meeting the requirement.

  751. Question 751 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 have been configured with their respective LAN interfaces. The two circuits are operational and reachable across the WAN. Which command set establishes failover redundancy if the primary circuit goes down?

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    Correct answer: D. R2(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.10.5 2

    Floating static routes provide failover by assigning a higher administrative distance to the backup path. This keeps the secondary route hidden in the background until the primary link fails and removes its lower distance route.

  752. Question 752 of 906Refer to the exhibit. All routers in the network are configured correctly, and the expected routes are being exchanged among the routers. Which set of routes are learned from neighbors and installed on router 2?

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    Correct answer: A. A. 10.129.9.0/23 10.139.2.0/30 10.2.191.0/30 10.129.9.0/25

    Dynamic routing protocols advertise and install network routes learned from neighboring devices, while directly connected networks are inherently present in the routing table. Therefore, any local subnets must be excluded to identify the dynamically learned paths.

  753. Question 753 of 906Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is updating the R1 configuration to connect a new server network. The PCs on the management network (10.1.1.0/24) must be prevented from pinging the default gateway of the new server network (172.16.2.10), while allowing all other traffic. Which configuration should be applied on R1?

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    Correct answer: B. access-list 100 deny icmp 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 host 172.16.2.10

    Extended access lists must filter specific traffic types like ICMP and be placed close to the source. This rule blocks pings to the target host while the permit statement allows all other legitimate traffic.

  754. Question 754 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Which switch in this configuration will be elected as the root bridge?SW1: 0C:0A:05:22:05:97 SW2: 0C:0A:A8:1A:3C:9D SW3: 0C:0A:18:81:B3:19 SW4: 0C:4A:82:56:35:78

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    Correct answer: C. C. SW3

    Spanning Tree Protocol elects the root bridge based on the lowest bridge ID. When priorities are tied, the switch with the lowest MAC address wins the election. The third octet makes SW3 lower than SW2.

  755. Question 755 of 906Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator configures an interface on a new switch so that it connects to interface Gi1/0/1 on switch Cat9300-1. Which configuration must be applied to the new interface?

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    Correct answer: A. switchport mode trunk

    Both sides of a switch link must be statically configured as a trunk for the connection to operate correctly. The other options either place the port in access mode or apply unnecessary encapsulation commands on a modern switch.

  756. Question 756 of 906Refer to the exhibit. An IPv6 address must be obtained automatically on the LAN interface on R1. Which command must be implemented to accomplish the task?

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    Correct answer: B. B. ipv6 address dhcp

    The dynamic host configuration protocol assigns IPv6 addresses to client interfaces automatically. The alternate options are invalid due to typos or attempt to apply static addressing against the requirement.

  757. Question 757 of 906What is represented by the word "R20" within this JSON schema?

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    Correct answer: A. A. value

    In JSON syntax, data is structured using key-value pairs. The value appears to the right of the colon, meaning R20 represents the data assigned to the router key. Arrays require brackets and objects require braces.

  758. Question 758 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Which action must be taken to ensure that router A is elected as the DR on the 192.168.2.0/24 segment?

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    Correct answer: A. A. Configure router A's interface on that segment with the highest OSPF priority value.

    OSPF Designated Router election is decided by the highest interface priority value, defaulting to a tiebreaker of the highest router ID. Setting the priority to the lowest value or merely setting the router ID does not guarantee winning the election.

  759. Question 759 of 906Refer to the exhibit. All traffic enters the CPE router from interface Serial0/3 with an IP address of 192.168.50.1. Web traffic from the WAN is destined for a LAN network where servers are load-balanced. An IP packet with a destination address of the HTTP virtual IP of 192.168.1.250 must be forwarded. Which routing table entry does the router use?

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    Correct answer: D. D. 192.168.1.224/27 via 192.168.15.5

    Routers evaluate destination IP addresses using the longest prefix match rule to find the most specific valid route. A slash 27 subnet provides a longer prefix match than a slash 26, ensuring the router selects the most precise network path.

  760. Question 760 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Which address and mask combination represents a summary of the routes learned by EIGRP?

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    Correct answer: C. C. 192.168.25.16 255.255.255.240

    Summarizing four contiguous slash thirty subnets requires borrowing two bits to create a single slash twenty-eight block. The summarized address must align on the proper bit boundary, which eliminates mismatched subnet masks and incorrect starting addresses.

  761. Question 761 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Assuming all switches use the default STP bridge priority, which switch will be elected as the root bridge? SW1: 0C:E0:38:41:86:07 SW2: 0C:0E:15:22:05:97 SW3: 0C:0E:15:1A:3C:9D SW4: 0C:E0:18:A1:B3:19

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    Correct answer: C. C. SW3

    Spanning Tree Protocol elects the root bridge based on the lowest Bridge ID. When priorities are tied, the switch with the lowest MAC address becomes the root, and hexadecimal values must be compared byte by byte to find the winner.

  762. Question 762 of 906Refer to the exhibit. All interfaces are in the same VLAN. All switches are configured with the default STP priorities. During the STP elections, which switch becomes the root bridge?

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    Correct answer: D. D. MDF-DC-3: 08:0E:18:1A:3C:9D

    With default Spanning Tree priorities, the lowest MAC address determines the root bridge. The switch with the lowest hexadecimal MAC address wins the election, bypassing other switches with higher byte values.

  763. Question 763 of 906Refer to the exhibit. An architect is managing a wireless network with APs from several branch offices connecting to the WLC in the data center. There is a new requirement for a single WLAN to process the client data traffic without sending it to the WLC. Which action must be taken to complete the request?

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    Correct answer: B. B. Enable FlexConnect Local Switching.

    FlexConnect local switching allows remote access points to bridge client data traffic directly onto the local branch network instead of tunneling it back to the central controller. The other profiling and disassociation options are distractors that do not alter the traffic forwarding path.

  764. Question 764 of 906Refer to the exhibit. What is the subnet mask for route 172.16.4.0?

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    Correct answer: C. C. 255.255.248.0

    A slash 21 prefix corresponds to the subnet mask 255.255.248.0. The other options represent different prefix lengths, so align the mask bits carefully to eliminate them.

  765. Question 765 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Which type of JSON data is represented?

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    Correct answer: B. B. array

    Square brackets in JSON denote an array, which is an ordered list of values. Curly braces would indicate an object, so rely on the enclosure type to identify the data structure correctly.

  766. Question 766 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Router-WAN1 has a new connection via Gi0/0 to the ISP. Users running the web applications indicate that connectivity is unstable to the internet. What is causing the interface issue?

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    Correct answer: B. B. A duplex mismatch is causing frame errors and collisions.

    Simultaneous collisions and CRC errors on a full-duplex link definitively point to a duplex mismatch with the ISP. Broadcast storms cause high utilization, and while runts are small frames, they do not explain the collision counter increasing on an interface.

  767. Question 767 of 906Refer to the exhibit. PC A is communicating with another device at IP address 10.225.34.225. Through which router does router Y route the traffic?

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    Correct answer: C. C. router C

    Router Y forwards traffic using the longest-prefix match rule, which prioritizes the most specific subnet in the routing table. Even if other routes exist, the /15 prefix provides the most precise match for the destination, sending traffic to router C.

  768. Question 768 of 906Refer to the exhibit. How does router R1 handle traffic to 192.168.10.16?

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    Correct answer: B. B. It selects the RIP route because it has the longest prefix inclusive of the destination address

    Routers always select the route with the longest matching prefix, regardless of the protocol's administrative distance. Even though EIGRP has a better default distance, the RIP route provides a more specific /27 subnet match for the destination.

  769. Question 769 of 906Refer to the exhibit. For the connection from inside local host 10.4.4.5 to 172.23.103.10:80, which IP address is the source IP after NAT has taken place?

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    Correct answer: D. D. 172.23.104.4

    Network Address Translation replaces the inside local source IP with the configured inside global address before packets exit. The translated source becomes 172.23.104.4, because the other addresses represent either the original host or the destination server.

  770. Question 770 of 906Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer must configure NETCONF. After creating the configuration, the engineer gets output from the command show line but not from show running-config. Which command completes the configuration?

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    Correct answer: D. D. Device(config)# netconf-yang

    The global configuration command netconf-yang is the required command to enable the NETCONF protocol and bring port 830 up on a Cisco device. The other options are auxiliary parameters that only function after the main protocol has been successfully enabled.

  771. Question 771 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Host A sends a unicast frame destined for host D, and the switch does not yet have host D's MAC address in its MAC address table. What does the switch do when it receives the frame from host A?

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    Correct answer: A. A. It floods the frame out of all ports except port Fa0/1

    When a switch receives a frame with an unknown destination MAC, it treats it as an unknown unicast and floods it out all active ports in the same VLAN except the receiving port. Broadcast storms and err-disable states require physical loops or violated security policies.

  772. Question 772 of 906Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer must configure the WLC to allow only DHCP and DNS packets for User1 and User2. Which configuration must be used?

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    Correct answer: C. C. Enable Web policy and Authentication in the Layer 3 Security configuration.

    Configuring a local web policy under Layer 3 security places wireless clients in a web authentication state, limiting their traffic to DHCP and DNS. Standard 802.1X operates at Layer 2, and fallback policies with MAC filtering do not restrict initial traffic.

  773. Question 773 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Which type of route does R1 use to reach host 10.10.13.10/32?

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    Correct answer: B. B. network route

    Cisco routers use the longest prefix match rule to select the most specific routing table entry for a destination IP address. A /25 network route is more specific than a /24 default route, and a host route would require a /32 mask.

  774. Question 774 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration establishes a Layer 2 LACP EtherChannel when applied to both switches?

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    Correct answer: A. interface range g1/1 – 3

    The command channel-group mode active forces a local interface to actively negotiate a Layer 2 EtherChannel using the LACP protocol. Setting the mode to passive fails if both sides wait, while mode on creates a static channel without protocol negotiation.

  775. Question 775 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Which command must be executed for Gi1/1 on SW1 to passively become a trunk port if Gi1/1 on SW2 is configured in desirable or trunk mode?

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    Correct answer: A. A. switchport mode dynamic auto

    The command switchport mode dynamic auto configures the interface to passively listen for Dynamic Trunking Protocol requests and form a trunk. Dynamic desirable actively attempts to form a trunk, which violates the passive requirement.

  776. Question 776 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Only four switches are participating in the VLAN spanning-tree process. Branch-1: priority 61440 Branch-2: priority 32768 Branch-3: priority 0 Branch-4: priority 24576. Which switch becomes the permanent root bridge for VLAN 5?

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    Correct answer: C. C. Branch-3

    Spanning Tree Protocol elects the root bridge based on the lowest bridge ID, which combines the priority value and the MAC address. Branch-3 has a priority of zero, making it the lowest possible priority value and guaranteeing it wins the root bridge election.

  777. Question 777 of 906Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is building a new Layer 2 LACP EtherChannel between SW1 and SW2, and they executed the given show commands to verify the work. Which additional task must be performed so that the switches successfully bundle the second member in the LACP port-channel?

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    Correct answer: D. D. Configure the switchport trunk allowed vlan add 300 command on interface Fa0/2 on SW1.

    All physical interfaces in a Layer 2 EtherChannel must have identical configurations, including allowed VLANs. Because SW1 interface Fa0/2 is missing VLAN 300 from its allowed list, adding VLAN 300 resolves the mismatch and allows the port to bundle.

  778. Question 778 of 906What is represented by the word "VPN11" within this JSON schema?

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    Correct answer: D. D. value

    In JSON syntax, a key-value pair assigns a specific value to a key, with the value appearing to the right of the colon. In the pair where VPN concentrator is the key, the string VPN11 represents the assigned value.

  779. Question 779 of 906Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is asked to design a small network with redundancy. The exhibit represents this design, with all hosts configured in the same VLAN. What conclusions can be made about this design?

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    Correct answer: C. C. The router will not accept the addressing scheme.

    Cisco IOS prevents the configuration of overlapping IP subnets across multiple active routed interfaces. Assigning interfaces to the exact same subnet causes a routing conflict, meaning the router will reject the addressing scheme.

  780. Question 780 of 906What is represented by the word "LB20" within this JSON schema?

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    Correct answer: A. A. value

    In JSON syntax, a key-value pair assigns a specific value to a key, with the value appearing to the right of the colon. In the pair where load balancer is the key, the string LB20 represents the assigned value.

  781. Question 781 of 906What is represented in line 2 within this JSON schema?

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    Correct answer: A. A. object

    In JSON syntax, an object is defined by curly braces and consists of one or more key-value pairs. Line 2 is enclosed in curly braces, making it a distinct JSON object within the surrounding data structure.

  782. Question 782 of 906Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator must permit SSH access to remotely manage routers in a network. The operations team resides on the 10.20.1.0/25 network. Which command will accomplish this task?

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    Correct answer: C. C. access-list 2699 permit tcp 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.127 any eq 22

    SSH operates over TCP port 22 and requires an extended access list for filtering. The operations team subnet must be matched using the correct wildcard mask of 0.0.0.127. The correct command permits this specific TCP traffic from the source network.

  783. Question 783 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Switch A is newly configured. All VLANs are present in the VLAN database. The IP phone and PC A on Gi0/1 must be configured for the appropriate VLANs to establish connectivity between the PCs. Which command set fulfills the requirement?

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    Correct answer: A. A. SwitchA(config-if)#switchport mode access SwitchA(config-if)#switchport access vlan 50 SwitchA(config-if)#switchport voice vlan 51

    A standard voice VLAN design uses an access port for the data VLAN and a separate voice VLAN for the phone. The other options incorrectly use trunk mode or untagged voice parameters, which do not fit the standard access-port phone configuration.

  784. Question 784 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Which command set configures ROUTER-1 to allow Internet access for users on the 192.168.1.0/24 subnet while using 209.165.202.129 for Port Address Translation?

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    Correct answer: D. D. ip nat pool CCNA 209.165.202.129 209.165.202.129 netmask 255.255.255.255 access-list 10 permit 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 ip nat inside source list 10 pool CCNA overload

    Port Address Translation requires defining a NAT pool with a single public IP address and an ACL using the correct wildcard mask to match the inside subnet. The overload keyword enables PAT, allowing multiple hosts to share the public IP.

  785. Question 785 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Which plan must be implemented to ensure optimal QoS marking practices on this network?

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    Correct answer: A. A. Trust the IP phone markings on SW1 and mark traffic entering SW2 at SW2

    Quality of Service best practices place the trust boundary as close to the edge as possible. IP phones are trusted for voice traffic, but untrusted PC traffic must be marked by the access switch to prevent malicious or incorrect prioritization.

  786. Question 786 of 906Refer to the exhibit. R1 has taken the DROTHER role in the OSPF DR/BDR election process. Which configuration makes R1 the preferred DR candidate for the next OSPF DR/BDR election?

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    Correct answer: D. D. R1(config)#interface FastEthernet 0/0 R1(config-if)#ip ospf priority 200 R1#clear ip ospf process

    OSPF designated router election on a broadcast network is determined first by interface priority, then router ID. Setting the priority to 200 makes R1 the highest priority on the segment, but clearing the process is required to trigger the next election.

  787. Question 787 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Which action is expected from SW1 when the untagged frame is received on the GigabitEthernet0/1 interface?

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    Correct answer: C. C. The frame is processed in VLAN 5

    In 802.1Q trunking, untagged frames received on a trunk port are assigned to the native VLAN. Since the native VLAN is configured as 5, the switch processes and forwards the frame using the VLAN 5 MAC address table.

  788. Question 788 of 906Refer to the exhibit. The default-information originate command is configured under the R1 OSPF configuration. After testing, workstations on VLAN 20 at Site B cannot reach a DNS server on the Internet. Which action corrects the configuration issue?

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    Correct answer: C. C. Configure the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.10.18 command on R1.

    The default-information originate command requires a default route to exist in the routing table before advertising it into OSPF. Adding a static default route on R1 provides the necessary path to the Internet and injects it into the routing domain.

  789. Question 789 of 906Refer to the exhibit. After the configuration is applied, the two routers fail to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship. What is the reason for the problem?

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    Correct answer: C. C. Router2 is using the default hello timer

    OSPF neighbors must have matching hello and dead timers on a link to form an adjacency. If Router1 sets a custom hello interval while Router2 uses the default, the mismatched timers prevent the neighbor relationship from establishing.

  790. Question 790 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Rapid PVST+ mode is on the same VLAN on each switch. Which switch becomes the root bridge and why?

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    Correct answer: A. A. SW4, because its priority is lowest

    In Rapid PVST+, the root bridge is elected based on the lowest bridge ID, which compares priority first and uses the MAC address as a tiebreaker. SW4 has the lowest priority, making it the root. Higher priorities or MAC addresses are ignored when a lower priority exists.

  791. Question 791 of 906What is represented by the word "IDS" within this JSON schema?

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    Correct answer: D. D. key

    In a JSON key-value pair, the word appearing to the left of the colon is the key, and the data on the right is the value. The structure acts as a dictionary object. Arrays and standalone values do not use this mapping syntax.

  792. Question 792 of 906Refer to the exhibit. A packet sourced from 172.18.33.2 is destined for 172.18.32.38. Where does the router forward the packet?

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    Correct answer: D. D. GigabitEthernet0/0

    Routers use the longest-prefix match rule to select the most specific route in the table. The destination falls within the directly connected /30 subnet on GigabitEthernet0/0. Less specific routes like /26 or /24 are ignored when a longer match exists.

  793. Question 793 of 906Refer to the exhibit. What is the prefix length for the route that Router1 will use to reach host A?

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    Correct answer: C. C. /28

    Routers forward packets using the longest-prefix match in the routing table. The destination address falls within the /28 subnet range, making it the most specific route. Less specific prefixes like /25 or /27 are ignored if a longer match is available.

  794. Question 794 of 906Refer to the exhibit. The administrator must configure a floating static default route that points to 2001:db8:1234:2::1 and replaces the current default route only if it fails. Which command must the engineer configure on the CPE?

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    Correct answer: A. A. ipv6 route ::/0 2001:db8:1234:2::1 3

    A floating static route must have a higher administrative distance than the primary route to act as a backup. Setting the administrative distance to three ensures the route remains inactive until the primary default route fails. Prefixes like ::/128 do not match all IPv6 traffic.

  795. Question 795 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Router R2 learns multiple routes to reach network 10.1.1.0/24 from router R1 (static, eBGP, OSPF, and EIGRP). Which path is chosen by router R2 to reach the destination network 10.1.1.0/24?

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    Correct answer: A. A. static

    Routers select the route with the lowest administrative distance when learning the same prefix from multiple sources. The default administrative distance of one makes the static route the clear winner, effectively eliminating the dynamic protocol options.

  796. Question 796 of 906Refer to the exhibit. What is occurring on this switch?

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    Correct answer: A. A. Frames are dropped after 16 failed transmission attempts

    Ethernet networks drop frames after sixteen consecutive collisions, which are recorded as excessive collision errors. This behavior occurs in half-duplex environments using collision detection, ruling out buffer overflows and standard frame size counters.

  797. Question 797 of 906Refer to the exhibit. A packet that is sourced from 172.16.3.254 is destined for the IP address of GigabitEthernet0/0/0. What is the subnet mask of the destination route?

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    Correct answer: D. D. 255.255.255.255

    A local route for an interface Internet Protocol address is always configured as a slash thirty-two host route. The corresponding subnet mask of two hundred fifty-five precisely matches the host destination, overriding broader network route options.

  798. Question 798 of 906Refer to the exhibit. The ntp server 192.168.0.3 command has been configured on router 1 to make it an NTP client of router 2. Which command must be configured on router 2 so that it operates in server-only mode and relies only on its internal clock?

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    Correct answer: D. D. Router2(config)#ntp master 4

    Configuring a router as an Network Time Protocol master forces it to synchronize clients using its own internal clock. This command designates a server-only hierarchy, eliminating the need to point to external time servers.

  799. Question 799 of 906Refer to the exhibit. PC1 tries to ping PC3 for the first time and sends out an ARP to S1. Which action is taken by S1?

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    Correct answer: A. A. It is flooded out every port except G0/0.

    A switch floods broadcast frames like Address Resolution Protocol requests out all active ports in the same virtual local area network except the receiving port. This basic Layer Two forwarding behavior eliminates options suggesting targeted forwarding or dropping the frame.

  800. Question 800 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Which interface is chosen to forward traffic to the host at 192.168.0.55?

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    Correct answer: C. C. GigabitEthernet0/1

    Routing tables use the longest prefix match rule to select the most specific route for a destination. The slash twenty-four route provides a longer match than slash sixteen or twenty-three options, directing traffic out the associated interface.

  801. Question 801 of 906Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is configuring a Layer 3 port-channel interface with LACP. The configuration on the first device is complete, and it is verified that both interfaces have registered the neighbor device in the CDP table. Which task on the neighbor device enables the new port channel to come up while allowing only the first device to initiate LACP negotiation?

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    Correct answer: D. D. Configure the neighboring interfaces for LACP passive mode.

    Link Aggregation Control Protocol requires at least one side to be active to initiate negotiation and form an EtherChannel. Configuring the neighbor in passive mode ensures it responds without initiating, satisfying the requirement and eliminating static modes.

  802. Question 802 of 906Refer to the exhibit. A packet sourced from 10.10.10.1 is destined for 172.16.3.254. What is the subnet mask of the destination route?

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    Correct answer: B. B. 255.255.254.0

    The destination falls within the subnet, and the correct mask proves the longest prefix match applies. The distractors represent incorrect boundary calculations, so eliminating them relies on verifying the actual range.

  803. Question 803 of 906Refer to the exhibit. What is the next-hop IP address for R2 so that PC2 reaches the application server via EIGRP?

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    Correct answer: B. B. 10.10.10.6

    The routing table explicitly lists the next hop IP address used to forward traffic. The trap options present local interface or end-user IP addresses, which you eliminate by reading the explicit route entry.

  804. Question 804 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Which command enables OSPF on the point-to-point link between routers R1 and R2 using a network statement?

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    Correct answer: C. C. network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.3 area 0

    The network command enables OSPF on interfaces matching the specified subnet and wildcard mask. The distractors fail because router ID, priority, and neighbor commands do not activate the protocol on the link.

  805. Question 805 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Which route type does the routing protocol Code D represent in the output?

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    Correct answer: B. B. route learned through EIGRP

    The letter D in the routing table designates a route learned via EIGRP. The distractors fail because connected routes use C, static routes use S, and internal BGP uses B.

  806. Question 806 of 906Refer to the exhibit. A packet is being sent across router R1 to host 172.16.3.14. To which destination does the router send the packet?

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    Correct answer: D. D. 207.165.200.254 via Serial0/0/1

    Routers use longest prefix match logic to select the most specific route for a destination. Option D correctly identifies the next hop for the slash twenty eight subnet, eliminating the broader slash twenty four and default routes.

  807. Question 807 of 906Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants VLAN 67 traffic to be untagged between Switch 1 and Switch 2, while all other VLANs are to remain tagged. Which command accomplishes this task?

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    Correct answer: D. D. switchport trunk native vlan 67

    In IEEE 802.1Q trunking, the native VLAN is forwarded without a tag. Configuring the native VLAN changes the untagged traffic parameter, whereas the allowed VLAN command simply filters which tagged VLANs can cross the trunk.

  808. Question 808 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Which action is taken by the router when a packet is sourced from 10.10.10.2 and destined for 10.10.10.16?

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    Correct answer: D. D. It discards the packets.

    When a router lacks a matching route and has no gateway of last resort, it drops the packet and sends an unreachable message. Options suggesting flooding or queueing are incorrect because routers drop unknown destinations immediately.

  809. Question 809 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Which path is used by the router for Internet traffic?

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    Correct answer: B. B. 0.0.0.0/0

    The 0.0.0.0/0 entry represents the default route, which catches all non-local traffic bound for the Internet. The other options are specific subnets that would only match local network destinations.

  810. Question 810 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Which switch in this configuration will be elected as the root bridge?SW1: 0C:E4:82:33:62:23 SW2: 0C:0E:16:11:05:97 SW3: 0C:E0:16:1A:3C:9D SW4: 0C:00:18:A1:B3:19

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    Correct answer: B. B. SW2

    Spanning Tree elects the root bridge based on the lowest bridge ID. When switches tie on priority, the lowest MAC address breaks the tie, making SW2 the winner over SW3.

  811. Question 811 of 906Refer to the exhibit. What is identified by the word switch within line 2 of the JSON Schema?

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    Correct answer: D. D. key

    In JSON format, the string appearing before the colon is the key. Therefore, the word switch identifies the key, and the associated data following the colon represents its value.

  812. Question 812 of 906Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer must provide configured IP addressing details to investigate a firewall rule issue. Which subnet and mask identify what is configured on the en0 interface?

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    Correct answer: C. C. 10.8.128.0/19

    The hexadecimal netmask converts to a slash nineteen prefix length, making the third octet block size thirty-two. Because one hundred thirty-eight falls between one hundred twenty-eight and one hundred fifty-nine, the correct configured network address is ten point eight point one hundred twenty-eight point zero.

  813. Question 813 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Based on the LACP neighbor status, in which mode is the SW1 port channel configured?

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    Correct answer: B. B. active

    Link Aggregation Control Protocol requires at least one side to be in active mode to actively initiate negotiation. Since the partner is operating in passive mode, the local switch must be in active mode to successfully form the port channel.

  814. Question 814 of 906Refer to the exhibit. A static route must be configured on R14 to forward traffic for the 172.21.34.0/25 network that resides on R86. Which command must be used to fulfill the request?

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    Correct answer: B. B. ip route 172.21.34.0 255.255.255.128 10.73.65.66

    A static route requires the exact destination subnet mask and a valid next-hop IP address. The /25 network requires a 255.255.255.128 mask, and the next-hop must be the remote router's IP on the shared link, eliminating the other subnet sizes.

  815. Question 815 of 906Refer to the exhibit. What is the issue with the interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1?

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    Correct answer: D. D. duplex mismatch

    Collisions on a Gigabit Ethernet interface indicate a duplex mismatch. Gigabit links should operate in full-duplex mode, making collision counters increment abnormally when connected to a half-duplex device.

  816. Question 816 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 receives static routing updates from routers A, B, C, and D. The network engineer wants R1 to advertise static routes in OSPF area 1. Which summary address must be advertised in OSPF?

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    Correct answer: D. D. 10.1.40.0/23

    Route summarization finds the smallest subnet boundary that encompasses all required prefixes. The /23 mask cleanly covers the address ranges of both the 40 and 41 third octets, avoiding the smaller, incomplete /24 and /25 options.

  817. Question 817 of 906Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must add a subnet for a new office that will add 20 users to the network. Which IPv4 network and subnet mask combination does the engineer assign to minimize wasting addresses?

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    Correct answer: D. D. 10.10.225.32 255.255.255.224

    Subnetting for a specific number of hosts requires calculating the needed host bits and finding a valid network boundary. Supporting twenty users requires a /27 network, which provides thirty usable addresses while minimizing wasted space.

  818. Question 818 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Which action do the switches take on the trunk link?

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    Correct answer: B. B. The trunk forms, but the mismatched native VLANs are merged into a single broadcast domain.

    An 802.1Q trunk will still form between switches even if the native VLANs do not match. The trap option of err-disabled applies to native VLAN mismatches only when strict tagging violations are enforced, but a standard trunk simply merges the mismatched untagged VLANs into a single broadcast domain.

  819. Question 819 of 906Which interface is used to send traffic to the route shown in the exhibit?

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    Correct answer: B. B. G0/20

    Cisco routers select the best route by first comparing administrative distance, and then comparing the metric. OSPF has a lower administrative distance than RIP, so the router installs the OSPF route with the lowest metric, directing traffic out G0/20.

  820. Question 820 of 906Refer to the exhibit. The network engineer is configuring a new WLAN and is told to use a setup password for authentication instead of the RADIUS servers. Which additional set of tasks must the engineer perform to complete the configuration?

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    Correct answer: D. D. Select WPA2 Policy Enable PSK

    Configuring WPA2 with a Pre-Shared Key provides local password authentication without relying on a RADIUS server. Any option enabling 802.1X is eliminated because 802.1X mandates external authentication, which contradicts the setup password requirement.

  821. Question 821 of 906Refer to the exhibit. The router has been configured with a super net to accommodate the requirements for 380 users on a Subnet. The requirement already considers 30% future growth. Which configuration verifies the IP subnet on router R4?

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    Correct answer: D. D. Subnet: 10.7.54.0 Subnet mask: 255.255.254.0 Broadcast address: 10.7.55.255 Usable IP address range: 10.7.54.1 to 10.7.55.254

    A subnet supporting at least 380 hosts requires 10 host bits, which corresponds to a prefix length of 22. Applying the 255.255.254.0 mask to the base address creates a usable host range from 10.7.54.1 through 10.7.55.254, instantly eliminating the smaller options.

  822. Question 822 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Which switch becomes the root bridge for VLAN 20 if all switches use the default bridge priority and SW1 has the lowest MAC address?

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    Correct answer: A. A. SW1

    Spanning Tree Protocol elects the root bridge based on the lowest bridge ID, which combines the priority and the MAC address. When all priorities are equal, the switch with the lowest MAC address becomes the root bridge.

  823. Question 823 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Between which zones do wireless users expect to experience intermittent connectivity?

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    Correct answer: C. C. between zones 3 and 4

    Overlapping coverage cells operating on the same channel cause co-channel interference, forcing devices to share the RF medium and increasing contention. Identifying overlapping channels in the exhibit pinpoints where users experience unstable connections.

  824. Question 824 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Traffic from R1 to the 10.10.2.0/24 subnet uses 192.168.1.2 as its next hop. A network engineer wants to update the R1 configuration so that traffic with destination 10.10.2.1 passes through router R3, and all other traffic to the 10.10.2.0/24 subnet passes through R2. Which command must be used?

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    Correct answer: A. A. ip route 10.10.2.1 255.255.255.255 192.168.1.4 115

    The longest prefix match rule dictates that routers always prefer the most specific route. Configuring a host route with a slash thirty two mask ensures traffic for that single IP uses the new path, while the rest of the subnet uses the broader route.

  825. Question 825 of 906Refer to the exhibit. The switch cat9k-acc-1 connects users to the campus LAN. Printing services are inaccessible through the network. Which interface issue is causing the connectivity problems?

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    Correct answer: A. A. A bad checksum is causing Ethernet frames to drop.

    A high number of CRC errors indicates that Ethernet frames are arriving corrupted and failing the checksum verification. Excessive collisions or broadcast packets would show different interface counters, while output queue drops would not specifically generate CRC errors.

  826. Question 826 of 906Refer to the exhibit. What does the exhibit show R1 doing with the DSCP values of the packets?

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    Correct answer: A. A. preserving the DSCP markings

    The exhibit demonstrates that R1 is preserving the existing DSCP markings because the packets exit with the exact same values they entered with. Remarking, shaping, or queuing would actively alter or restrict the traffic flow, which is not shown here.

  827. Question 827 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Traffic that is flowing over interface TenGigabitEthernet0/0/0 experiences slow transfer speeds. What is the cause of this issue?

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    Correct answer: C. C. duplex incompatibility

    A massive collision count on a full-duplex interface is the classic symptom of a duplex incompatibility between connected devices. Queuing drops or congestion would show output drops, while a speed conflict typically results in a downed line protocol.

  828. Question 828 of 906Refer to the exhibit. An engineer wants the EtherChannel to go down unless at least two links are active. Which configuration on Switch1 meets this requirement?

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    Correct answer: B. Switch1(config-if)# port-channel min-links 2

    The port-channel min-links command forces the EtherChannel interface to down state if active member links drop below the threshold. LACP port-priority only controls which links are placed in standby, while max-bundle limits the total active links allowed.

  829. Question 829 of 906Refer to the exhibit. A Cisco WLC administrator is creating a new wireless network with enhanced SSID security. The new network must operate at 2.4 GHz with 54 Mbps of throughput. Which set of tasks must the administrator perform to complete the configuration?

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    Correct answer: C. C. Uncheck the Broadcast SSID check box and set the Radio Policy to 802.11g only.

    The 802.11g standard operates in the 2.4 GHz band and provides up to 54 Mbps throughput. Enhanced SSID security implies hiding the network, so unchecking Broadcast SSID fulfills this requirement while the radio policy enforces the correct frequency and speed.

  830. Question 830 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Which action establishes the OSPF neighbor relationship by allowing the routers to form an adjacency?

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    Correct answer: A. A. modify hello interval

    OSPF requires neighboring routers to have matching Hello and Dead timers to form an adjacency. Modifying the hello interval resolves the timer mismatch shown in the exhibit, allowing the routers to successfully synchronize their link-state databases.

  831. Question 831 of 906Refer to the exhibit. If the network environment is operating normally, which type of device must be connected to interface fastethernet 0/1?

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    Correct answer: C. C. router

    Configuring an interface with IP ARP inspection trust designates it as a trusted port for Dynamic ARP Inspection. Trusted ports are typically used for uplinks connecting to other routers or switches, preventing legitimate traffic from being dropped.

  832. Question 832 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Router R14 is in the process of being configured. Which configuration must be used to establish a host route to PC 10?

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    Correct answer: B. B. ip route 10.80.65.10 255.255.255.255 10.73.65.66

    A host route requires a 255.255.255.255 subnet mask. Options using wildcard masks or broader masks fail to create a single-host entry. The next hop must be on a connected subnet.

  833. Question 833 of 906Refer to the exhibit. An administrator received a call from a branch office regarding poor application performance hosted at the headquarters. Ethernet 1 is connected between Router1 and the LAN switch. What identifies the issue?

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    Correct answer: B. B. There is a duplex mismatch.

    A high collision count combined with CRC errors indicates a duplex mismatch. Modern switched Ethernet operates in full-duplex, meaning collisions should not occur under normal operation.

  834. Question 834 of 906Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator assumes a task to complete the connectivity between PC A and the File Server. Switch A and Switch B have been partially configured with VLANs 10, 11, 12, and 13. What is the next step in the configuration?

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    Correct answer: B. B. Add VLAN 13 to the trunk links on Switch A and Switch B for VLAN propagation

    Trunk links must explicitly allow specific VLANs to carry their traffic across switches. If a trunk omits a VLAN, frames assigned to it will not cross the link.

  835. Question 835 of 906Refer to the exhibit. To which device does Router1 send packets that are destined to host 10.10.13.165?

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    Correct answer: B. B. Router3

    Routers use the longest-prefix match to determine the best path. The destination IP falls within the specific subnet associated with Router3.

  836. Question 836 of 906Refer to the exhibit. What is represented by R1 and SW1 within the JSON output?

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    Correct answer: B. B. value

    In JSON, strings inside arrays act as values mapped to their respective keys. Keys map to arrays, while the items inside those arrays are the values.

  837. Question 837 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration issue is preventing the OSPF neighbor relationship from being established between the two routers?

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    Correct answer: C. C. R1 interface Gi1/0 has a larger MTU size.

    OSPF neighbors must have matching interface maximum transmission unit sizes. An MTU mismatch prevents adjacency from reaching the full state.

  838. Question 838 of 906Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of this configuration?

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    Correct answer: C. C. The switch port interface trust state becomes untrusted.

    Dynamic ARP inspection treats switch ports as untrusted by default. Without an explicit trust command, the interface remains untrusted.

  839. Question 839 of 906Refer to the exhibit. What is the next hop for traffic entering R1 with a destination of 10.1.2.126?

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    Correct answer: A. A. 10.165.20.126

    The destination IP falls within the 10.1.2.0/25 subnet. The routing table identifies this subnet with an EIGRP route via the specified next hop. Longest-prefix match dictates that this route is chosen over any less specific entries.

  840. Question 840 of 906Refer to the exhibit. A packet sourced from 172.16.32.254 is destined for 172.16.32.8. What is the subnet mask of the preferred destination route?

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    Correct answer: C. C. 255.255.255.192

    The destination IP falls within the 172.16.32.0/26 subnet, which corresponds to a 255.255.255.192 subnet mask. The longest-prefix match rule selects this route because it is the most specific matching entry in the routing table.

  841. Question 841 of 906Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer updates the existing configuration on interface FastEthernet1/1 on switch SW1. It must establish an EtherChannel by using the same group designation with another vendor switch. Which configuration must be performed to complete the process?

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    Correct answer: C. C. interface fastethernet 1/1 channel-group 2 mode active

    Connecting to a non-Cisco switch requires a standards-based protocol like LACP. The command channel-group mode active explicitly enables LACP negotiation on the physical interface. Proprietary protocols like PAgP will fail with third-party hardware.

  842. Question 842 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Load-balanced traffic is coming in from the WAN destined to a host at 172.16.1.190. Which next-hop IP address is used by the router to forward the request?

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    Correct answer: C. C. 192.168.7.35

    The destination address belongs to the 172.16.1.184/29 subnet. According to the routing table, this specific prefix is reachable via the selected next-hop address. Longest-prefix match ensures the router chooses this exact route over broader network summaries.

  843. Question 843 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Network services must be enabled on interface Gi1/0/34. Which configuration meets the needs for this implementation?

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    Correct answer: C. C. interface Gi1/0/34 switchport mode access switchport access vlan 400 switchport voice vlan 4041

    An access port assigns the data VLAN while a separate voice VLAN command supports IP phones. The switchport mode access command is required for end-host connectivity. Trunk configurations are incorrect because they are designed for switch-to-switch links.

  844. Question 844 of 906An engineer must configure neighbor discovery between the company router and an ISP. What is the next step to complete the configuration if the ISP uses a third-party router?

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    Correct answer: A. A. Enable LLDP globally.

    Neighbor discovery with third-party devices requires the standards-based Link Layer Discovery Protocol. Even if interfaces are configured to transmit and receive, LLDP must be globally enabled. Cisco Discovery Protocol is proprietary and will not function with non-Cisco equipment.

  845. Question 845 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Configurations for the switch and PCs are complete. Which configuration must be applied so that VLANs 2 and 3 communicate back and forth?

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    Correct answer: B. B. interface GigabitEthernet0/0.10 encapsulation dot1Q 3 ip address 10.10.2.10 255.255.254.0

    Router-on-a-stick requires a subinterface with 802.1Q encapsulation matching the VLAN ID. The IP address and subnet mask must align exactly with the host subnet. Incorrect encapsulation numbers or native keywords will disrupt inter-VLAN routing.

  846. Question 846 of 906Refer to the exhibit. On R1, which routing protocol is in use on the route to 192.168.10.1?

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    Correct answer: D. D. EIGRP

    A route marked with the letter D in a Cisco routing table indicates it was learned via EIGRP. The administrative distance of 90 further confirms an internal EIGRP route. Other routing protocols have different designated letter codes.

  847. Question 847 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Which switch in this configuration will be elected as the root bridge?

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    Correct answer: D. D. SW4: 0C:0A:05:22:05:97

    Spanning Tree Protocol elects the root bridge based on the lowest bridge ID, combining priority and MAC address. The switch with the lowest priority value wins. If priorities tie, the lowest MAC address breaks the tie and secures the root bridge role.

  848. Question 848 of 906Refer to the exhibit. What is the subnet mask of the route to the 10.10.13.160 prefix?

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    Correct answer: D. D. 255.255.255.248

    The subnet mask 255.255.255.248 corresponds to a slash 29 prefix length. Routing tables display the prefix length, which directly translates to the subnet mask for the route entry.

  849. Question 849 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Clients on the WLAN are required to use 802.11r. What action must be taken to meet the requirement?

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    Correct answer: D. D. Set the Fast Transition option to Enable and enable FT 802.1X under Authentication Key Management.

    802.11r is implemented by enabling Fast Transition and selecting the appropriate FT authentication method, such as FT 802.1X, under Authentication Key Management. This ensures standards-based fast roaming. CCKM is a legacy Cisco proprietary method that does not meet the modern 802.11r standard.

  850. Question 850 of 906Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is configuring a wireless LAN with Web Passthrough Layer 3 Web Policy. Which action must the engineer take to complete the configuration?

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    Correct answer: D. D. Set the Layer 2 Security to None.

    For Web Passthrough, the WLAN must have Layer 2 Security set to None to allow clients to associate and obtain an IP address. The controller then intercepts HTTP traffic for redirection. Configuring 802.1X or WPA encryption would prevent the open Layer 2 access required for this policy.

  851. Question 851 of 906Refer to the exhibit. The engineer configured the VLANs on the new AccSw2 switch. A router-on-a-stick is connected to both switches. How must the ports be configured on AccSw2 to establish full connectivity between the two switches and for Server1?

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    Correct answer: C. C. interface GigabitEthernet1/3 switchport mode access switchport access vlan 10 ! interface GigabitEthernet1/24 switchport mode trunk

    Server1 must be placed into its assigned VLAN using switchport mode access and the correct access VLAN command. The inter-switch link must be configured as a trunk to carry multiple VLANs between switches. Restricting allowed VLANs or using the wrong access VLAN breaks connectivity.

  852. Question 852 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output, what is the most likely cause of the issue?

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    Correct answer: B. B. wrong cable type

    An interface showing a down/down state with a notconnect status indicates a Layer 1 physical problem. A wrong cable type or cabling issue prevents physical link detection. Port security or STP results in specific error states, while a shutdown interface displays as administratively down.

  853. Question 853 of 906Refer to the exhibit. An engineer assigns IP addressing to the current VLAN with three PCs. The configuration must also account for the expansion of 30 additional VLANs using the same Class C subnet for subnetting and host count. Which command set fulfills the request while reserving address space for the expected growth?

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    Correct answer: B. Switch(config-if)#ip address 192.168.0.1 255.255.255.248

    Borrowing five host bits from a /24 network creates 32 subnets, fulfilling the expansion requirement while leaving three host bits per subnet. This provides six usable addresses per VLAN, which is sufficient for the PCs. Larger subnet masks waste address space and fail to meet the growth needs.

  854. Question 854 of 906Refer to the exhibit. The image server and client A are running an application that transfers an extremely high volume of data between the two. An engineer is configuring a dedicated circuit between R1 and R2. Which set of commands must the engineer apply to the routers so that only traffic between the image server and client A is forced to use the new circuit?

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    Correct answer: A. R2(config)#ip route 192.168.0.100 255.255.255.255 10.10.10.5

    Host-specific static routes direct traffic for a single device without altering the default routing path. Using a slash thirty-two mask ensures only the image server and client use the dedicated circuit, eliminating broader subnet options that could redirect unrelated traffic.

  855. Question 855 of 906Refer to the exhibit. The primary route across Gi0/0 is configured on both routers. A secondary route must be configured to establish connectivity between the workstation networks. Which command set must be configured to complete this task?

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    Correct answer: C. C. R1 – ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.224 172.16.0.6 111 R2 – ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.0.5 112

    Floating static routes require a higher administrative distance than the dynamic protocol to act as backups. The trap options use incorrect subnet masks or low administrative distances, which would override the primary OSPF link.

  856. Question 856 of 906Refer to the exhibit. IPv6 is being implemented within the enterprise. The command ipv6 unicast-routing is configured. Interface Gig0/0 on R1 must be configured to provide a dynamic assignment using the assigned IPv6 block. Which command accomplishes this task?

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    Correct answer: C. C. ipv6 address 2001:DB8:FFFF:FCF3::64 eui-64

    The EUI command dynamically generates the interface identifier using the assigned prefix. Incorrect options fail because link-local commands restrict the scope, and autoconfig does not accept a hardcoded prefix.

  857. Question 857 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Assume the switch has already learned Sales-1's MAC address on interface Gi1/0/1. Sales-4 sends a data frame to Sales-1. What does the switch do as it receives the frame from Sales-4?

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    Correct answer: B. B. Learn the source MAC address on Sales-4's ingress port and forward the frame only out the port connected to Sales-1.

    A switch learns the source MAC on ingress and forwards known unicast frames only out the destination port. The flooding distractor fails because the destination is already in the MAC address table.

  858. Question 858 of 906Refer to the exhibit. After you apply the given configurations to R1 and R2, you notice that OSPFv3 fails to form a neighbor adjacency.

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    Correct answer: A. A. The area numbers on R1 and R2 are mismatched

    OSPF interfaces must share the exact same area ID to form a neighbor adjacency. The distractors fail because router IDs and IPv6 addresses only need to be unique, and OSPF does not use autonomous system numbers.

  859. Question 859 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Which prefix did router R1 learn from internal EIGRP?

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    Correct answer: D. D. 192.168.2.0/24

    In a Cisco IP routing table, routes learned via internal EIGRP are marked with the letter D and have a default administrative distance of ninety. The correct option is the only route displaying this specific protocol identifier and administrative distance.

  860. Question 860 of 906Refer to the exhibit. A company is configuring a failover plan and wants a backup floating static default route to take over if the primary link fails. Which command should be used for the primary static default route?

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    Correct answer: A. A. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 <primary-next-hop>

    A primary static route is configured with a default administrative distance of one by simply specifying the next hop. The backup floating route is then configured separately with a higher administrative distance to ensure it only activates when the primary fails.

  861. Question 861 of 906Refer to the exhibit. When PC-A sends traffic to PC-B, which network component is in charge of receiving the packet from PC-A, verifying the IP addresses, and forwarding the packet to PC-B?

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    Correct answer: A. A. router

    Routers perform layer three routing functions to forward traffic between different IP subnets. A switch only operates at layer two, while load balancers and firewalls perform specific edge functions rather than basic inter-vlan routing.

  862. Question 862 of 906Refer to the exhibit. When PC1 sends a packet to PC2, the packet has which source and destination IP address when it arrives at interface Gi0/0 on router R2?

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    Correct answer: C. C. source 192.168.10.10 and destination 192.168.20.10

    Standard IP routing preserves the original source and destination IP addresses end to end across all transit routers. Routers only rewrite the layer two MAC addresses at each hop, making the original host addresses the correct choice.

  863. Question 863 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Which VLAN ID is associated with the default VLAN in the given environment?

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    Correct answer: A. A. VLAN 1

    On Cisco switches, all ports belong to VLAN one by default out of the box. This factory setting remains consistent regardless of any additional custom VLANs configured on the switch.

  864. Question 864 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Which change to the configuration on Switch2 allows the two switches to establish an EtherChannel?

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    Correct answer: C. C. Change the LACP mode to active

    LACP requires at least one side of an EtherChannel to be configured in active mode to initiate negotiation. Changing the mode to active creates the necessary dynamic negotiation, whereas leaving both sides passive prevents the bundle from forming.

  865. Question 865 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Which route type is configured to reach the Internet?

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    Correct answer: D. D. default route

    The asterisk and the 0.0.0.0/0 mask identify the default route, which is used to reach unknown networks like the Internet. Floating static routes, host routes, and network routes do not match all destination IP addresses.

  866. Question 866 of 906Refer to the exhibit. How will switch SW2 handle traffic from VLAN 10 on SW1?

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    Correct answer: B. B. It sends the traffic to VLAN 100.

    A native VLAN mismatch causes untagged traffic to be placed into the receiving switch's native VLAN. Since SW1 sends VLAN 10 untagged, SW2 assigns it to its configured native VLAN of 100.

  867. Question 867 of 906Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is configuring a WLAN to connect with the 172.16.10.0/24 network on VLAN 20. The engineer wants to limit the number of devices that connect to the WLAN on the USERWL SSID to 125. Which configuration must the engineer perform on the WLC?

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    Correct answer: B. B. In the WLAN configuration, set the Maximum Allowed Clients value to 125.

    To limit client associations on a specific WLAN, you must configure the Maximum Allowed Clients setting in the WLAN configuration. The other options either affect unrelated management functions or standard beacon intervals.

  868. Question 868 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Users need to connect to the wireless network with IEEE 802.11r-compatible devices. The connection must be maintained as users travel between floors or to other areas in the building. What must be the configuration of the connection?

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    Correct answer: C. C. Enable Fast Transition and select the FT PSK option.

    IEEE 802.11r provides Fast BSS Transition for seamless roaming. Because the exhibit shows a pre-shared key configuration, you must enable Fast Transition using the FT PSK option rather than FT 802.1x.

  869. Question 869 of 906Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator must permit traffic from the 10.10.0.0/24 subnet to the WAN on interface Serial0. What is the effect of the configuration as the administrator applies the command?

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    Correct answer: C. C. The router fails to apply the access list to the interface.

    Applying an ACL to an interface requires the ip access-group command. Because the configuration uses ip access-list, the router rejects the syntax and fails to apply the ACL to Serial0.

  870. Question 870 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Which IP route command created the best path for a packet destined for 10.10.10.3?

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    Correct answer: B. B. ip route 10.10.10.0 255.255.255.240 g0/0

    The longest prefix match rule dictates that the route with the highest subnet mask is preferred. Option B creates a slash twenty-eight route, which is the most specific match for the destination address, beating the wider slash twenty-two and slash eight routes.

  871. Question 871 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Users at a branch office are experiencing application performance issues, poor VoIP audio quality, and slow downloads. What is the cause of the issues?

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    Correct answer: B. B. interface configuration

    High collisions and CRC errors on a switch port typically indicate an interface configuration problem, specifically a duplex mismatch. Interface misconfigurations force half-duplex operation, causing dropped packets and severe performance degradation across voice and data applications.

  872. Question 872 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Which entry is the longest prefix match for host IP address 192.168.10.5?

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    Correct answer: B. B. 2

    The longest prefix match rule selects the route with the highest subnet mask value to find the most specific network. Entry two provides a slash twenty-six mask, which correctly encompasses the target address while being more specific than competing routes.

  873. Question 873 of 906Refer to the exhibit. The given Windows PC is requesting the IP address of the host at www.cisco.com. To which IP address is the request sent?

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    Correct answer: A. A. 192.168.1.253

    Client computers send Domain Name System queries directly to their configured DNS server to resolve website hostnames. The ipconfig output explicitly lists the DNS server address, which receives the resolution request instead of the default gateway.

  874. Question 874 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Which rule does the DHCP server use when there is an IP address conflict?

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    Correct answer: A. A. The address is removed from the pool until the conflict is resolved.

    A Cisco Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol server automatically removes conflicting IP addresses from its assignable pool. This prevents future duplicate assignments until an administrator manually clears the conflict logging using specific command syntax.

  875. Question 875 of 906Which interface is used to send traffic to destination host 10.90.207.87?

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    Correct answer: A. A. F0/7

    Routers first compare administrative distance to choose the preferred route source. OSPF has a lower administrative distance than RIP, and between two OSPF routes, the lowest metric wins, directing traffic out F0/7.

  876. Question 876 of 906Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer configures the Cisco WLC to authenticate local wireless clients against a RADIUS server. Which task must be performed to complete the process?

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    Correct answer: C. C. Select Enable next to Network User

    A Wireless LAN Controller must explicitly enable RADIUS servers for Network User authentication to process client logins. Management access is reserved for administrative WLC logins, distinguishing it from standard wireless user authentication.

  877. Question 877 of 906An engineer configures interface Gi1/0 on the company PE router to connect to an ISP. Neighbor discovery is disabled. Which action is necessary to complete the configuration if the ISP uses third-party network devices?

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    Correct answer: B. B. Enable LLDP globally.

    Link Layer Discovery Protocol is an industry-standard protocol used to discover directly connected non-Cisco devices. Cisco Discovery Protocol will not work with third-party ISP routers, making global LLDP activation the required step.

  878. Question 878 of 906Refer to the exhibit. VoIP is being implemented in the network using VLAN ID 73 and named "VoIP". Each user needs a Cisco IP phone at their desk. Switchport e0/0 has been configured as an access port in the data VLAN. Cisco Discovery Protocol is enabled globally. Which command sequence completes the configuration?

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    Correct answer: D. D. vlan 73 name VoIP e0/0 switchport voice vlan 73

    Applying the switchport voice vlan command to an access port configures a special data and voice VLAN trunk for a connected IP phone. Trunking options are eliminated because a standard trunk configuration would incorrectly place the attached PC into the voice VLAN.

  879. Question 879 of 906Refer to the exhibit. The network engineer is configuring router R2 as a replacement router on the network. After the initial configuration is applied, it is determined that R2 failed to show R1 as a neighbor. Which configuration must be applied to R2 to complete the OSPF configuration and enable it to establish the neighbor relationship with R1?

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    Correct answer: A. ip ospf hello-interval 10

    OSPF neighbor adjacencies require strict matching of the hello and dead intervals between directly connected interfaces. The router-id option is eliminated because a router-id conflict prevents adjacency formation but does not match the specific hello interval mismatch shown in the topology.

  880. Question 880 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Which command configures a floating static route to provide a backup to the primary link?

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    Correct answer: A. A. ip route 209.165.200.224 255.255.255.224 209.165.202.129 254

    Configuring a floating static route requires appending an administrative distance higher than the primary routing protocol to the static route command. The default static route options are eliminated because they lack a high administrative distance and would therefore override the primary link.

  881. Question 881 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1, R2, and R3 use a protocol to identify the neighbors' IP addresses, hardware platforms, and software versions. A network engineer must configure R2 to avoid sharing any neighbor information with R3, and maintain its relationship with R1. What action meets this requirement?

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    Correct answer: C. C. Configure the no cdp enable command on g0/2.

    Cisco Discovery Protocol is enabled globally by default, but you can disable it on a single interface to block neighbor information on that specific link. Disabling CDP only on the link toward R3 meets the requirement while maintaining the neighbor relationship with R1.

  882. Question 882 of 906Refer to the exhibit. After the switch configuration, the ping test fails between PC A and PC B. Which trunk parameter mismatch is shown in the exhibit?

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    Correct answer: D. D. There is a native VLAN mismatch.

    The exhibit indicates a native VLAN mismatch because Switch 1 uses VLAN 1 while Switch 2 uses VLAN 99. On the exam, look for differing native VLAN assignments to identify this trunking error, which causes unexpected traffic behavior.

  883. Question 883 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 are configured with RIP as the dynamic routing protocol. A network engineer must configure R1 with a floating static route to serve as a backup route to network 192.168.23.0. Which command must the engineer configure on R1?

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    Correct answer: C. C. ip route 192.168.23.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.13.3 121

    A floating static route requires an administrative distance higher than the primary routing protocol to remain hidden until the primary fails. Since RIP has an administrative distance of 120, setting the static route to 121 ensures it only activates when the RIP route disappears.

  884. Question 884 of 906What is represented by the word "R29" within this JSON schema?

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    Correct answer: D. D. value

    In a JSON key-value pair, the item to the right of the colon represents the value assigned to the key. Understanding JSON data structures is essential for interacting with REST APIs on the exam.

  885. Question 885 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 resides in OSPF Area 0. After updating the R1 configuration to influence the paths that it will use to direct traffic, an engineer verified that each of the four Gigabit interfaces has a route to 10.10.0.0/16. Which interface will R1 choose to send traffic to reach the route?

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    Correct answer: B. B. GigabitEthernet0/1

    Open Shortest Path First calculates the metric by dividing the reference bandwidth by the interface bandwidth. The interface with the lowest calculated cost is chosen, so verifying the bandwidth commands in the exhibit reveals the primary path.

  886. Question 886 of 906Refer to the exhibit. What is the cause of poor performance on router R19?

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    Correct answer: D. D. speed and duplex mismatch

    Collisions should never occur on a properly functioning full-duplex link. Seeing collisions alongside CRC errors strongly points to a speed or duplex mismatch, eliminating simple port oversubscription as the root cause.

  887. Question 887 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Which type of configuration is represented in the output?

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    Correct answer: D. D. Puppet

    Puppet manifests use a domain-specific language easily identified by the hash rocket arrow syntax. Ansible and Chef rely on YAML or Ruby code respectively, so spotting the arrow confirms Puppet.

  888. Question 888 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Which statement explains the configuration error message that is received?

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    Correct answer: D. D. It is a broadcast IP address.

    A router rejects the assignment of a network or broadcast address to an interface. For the subnet in question, the provided IP is the highest address in the block, making it the broadcast address and triggering the error.

  889. Question 889 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Which interface is used to send traffic to the destination network?

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    Correct answer: B. B. G0/12

    Routers choose the path with the lowest administrative distance when multiple routing protocols advertise the same network. Among the internal EIGRP routes, the lowest metric determines the forwarding interface.

  890. Question 890 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R3 have the default configuration. The router R2 priority is set to 99. Which commands on R3 configure it as the DR in the 10.0.4.0/24 network?

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    Correct answer: D. R3(config-if)#ip ospf priority 100

    To win the designated router election, a router must have the highest OSPF interface priority on that segment. Configuring a priority of 100 on the correct active interface beats R2's priority of 99, forcing R3 to become the DR on the next election cycle.

  891. Question 891 of 906Refer to the exhibit. The P2P Blocking Action option is disabled on the WLC. The security team has a new requirement for each client to retain their assigned IP addressing as the clients move between locations in the campus network. Which action completes this configuration?

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    Correct answer: A. A. Enable the Static IP Tunneling option.

    Static IP tunneling anchors a wireless client session to its original controller. This maintains Layer 3 connectivity and preserves the assigned IP address as clients roam across different access points and VLANs.

  892. Question 892 of 906Refer to the exhibit. The EtherChannel is configured with a speed of 1000 and duplex as full on both ends of channel group 1. What is the next step to configure the channel on switch A to respond to but not initiate LACP communication?

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    Correct answer: D. channel-group 1 mode passive

    The passive mode setting is an LACP option that causes the switch to respond to LACP packets but not initiate them. The active mode initiates negotiation, while desirable and auto are PAgP modes.

  893. Question 893 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Based only on the metric values shown in the routing table, which next-hop IP address has the highest metric?

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    Correct answer: C. C. 10.10.10.3

    The bracketed values in an OSPF routing entry show the administrative distance and the metric. Because the route via 10.10.10.3 displays a metric of 100, it is higher than the metrics for the other listed next hops.

  894. Question 894 of 906Refer to the exhibit. How many arrays are present in the JSON data?

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    Correct answer: B. B. three

    JSON arrays are defined by square brackets holding ordered lists of values. While the overall file is a single JSON object enclosed in curly braces, three distinct key-value pairs contain square brackets, making three the correct array count.

  895. Question 895 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Remote VTY access to R4 must be configured and these requirements must be met: • Only Telnet access is allowed. • Local username/password authentication must be used for login. • The administrator must be able to reach privileged EXEC mode after login. • The enable credential must be entered in plain text during configuration but stored securely in the running configuration. Which configuration script meets the requirements?

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    Correct answer: A. A. ! conf t ! username test1 password testpass1 enable secret level 15 0 Test123 ! line vty 0 15 login local transport input telnet

    The transport input telnet command restricts access to Telnet only, while login local enforces the local user database. The enable secret command securely hashes the privileged execution password, preventing it from being stored in clear text within the running configuration.

  896. Question 896 of 906Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must configure GigabitEthernet1/1 to accommodate voice and data traffic. Which configuration accomplishes this task?

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    Correct answer: A. A. interface GigabitEthernet1/1

    Cisco IP phone deployments use an access port configured with a data VLAN and a voice VLAN. Trunk mode is incorrect because the native voice VLAN feature handles 802.1Q tagging for the phone automatically on the access port.

  897. Question 897 of 906Refer to the exhibit. SW_1 and SW_12 represent two companies that are merging. They use separate network vendors. The VLANs on both sides have been migrated to share IP subnets. Which command sequence must be issued on both sides to join the two companies and pass all VLANs between the companies?

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    Correct answer: A. A. interface GigabitEthernet0/1

    Interconnecting switches from different vendors requires configuring a static IEEE 802.1Q trunk because Cisco proprietary negotiation protocols will fail. Options relying on dynamic trunking are eliminated because DTP is Cisco-proprietary and interoperability across vendors is not guaranteed.

  898. Question 898 of 906Refer to the exhibit. A secondary route is required on router R1 to pass traffic to the LAN network on R2 if the primary link fails. Which command must be entered to configure the router?

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    Correct answer: D. D. ip route 10.0.2.0 255.255.255.248 10.0.0.6 91

    A floating static route uses an administrative distance higher than the primary routing protocol to act as a backup. The correct destination network must match the subnet mask, and the next hop must point to the correct secondary router.

  899. Question 899 of 906Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer must configure communication between PC A and the File Server. To prevent interruption for any other communications, which command must be configured?

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    Correct answer: C. C. switchport truck allowed vlan add 13

    Trunks only forward traffic for VLANs explicitly listed in the allowed list. Using the add keyword safely inserts VLAN 13 without erasing the currently allowed VLANs, whereas using an equals configuration would wipe the existing list.

  900. Question 900 of 906Refer to the exhibit. The IPv6 address for the LAN segment on router R2 must be configured using the EUI-64 format. Which IPv6 interface ID will be generated?

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    Correct answer: A. A. 10A0:ABFF:FECC:1

    EUI-64 creates an interface identifier by injecting FFFE into the middle of a MAC address. The seventh bit, known as the universal or local bit, is flipped, turning the hex 12 into 10.

  901. Question 901 of 906Refer to the exhibit. This ACL is configured to allow client access only to HTTP, HTTPS, and DNS services via UDP. The new administrator wants to add TCP access to the DNS service. Which configuration updates the ACL efficiently?

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    Correct answer: B. B. ip access-list extended Services 35 permit tcp 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 host 198.51.100.11 eq domain

    Named access control lists allow you to insert new entries seamlessly using sequence numbers. Applying sequence 35 ensures the permit rule is evaluated before the final explicit deny at sequence 40.

  902. Question 902 of 906Refer to the exhibit. The switches are connected via a Cat5 Ethernet cable that is tested successfully. The interfaces are configured as access ports and are both in a down status. What is the cause of the issue?

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    Correct answer: A. A. The speed settings on the switches are mismatched

    Ethernet ports must successfully negotiate or match their speed settings to establish a physical layer connection. A speed mismatch leaves both interfaces down, while a duplex mismatch would keep the link up but cause errors.

  903. Question 903 of 906Refer to the exhibit. EIGRP 10.10.10.0/24 [90/1441] via F0/10 EIGRP 10.10.10.0/24 [90/1444] via F0/11 EIGRP 10.10.10.0/24 [90/1442] via F0/12 OSPF 10.10.10.0/24 [110/20] via F0/13 OSPF 10.10.10.0/24 [110/30] via F0/14 Packets received by the router from BGP enter via a serial interface at 209.165.201.10. Each route is present within the routing table. Which interface is used to forward traffic with a destination IP of 10.10.10.24?

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    Correct answer: A. A. F0/10

    The router selects the route with the lowest administrative distance, preferring EIGRP over OSPF. Among the EIGRP paths, the route with the lowest metric is chosen.

  904. Question 904 of 906Refer to the exhibit. All routers in the network are configured. R2 must become the DR at the next OSPF election. After the engineer connected the devices, R1 was elected as the DR. Which command sequence should be configured on R2 so it becomes the preferred DR candidate?

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    Correct answer: A. A. R2(config)#intergface gi0/0 R2(config-if)#ip ospf priority 100

    OSPF designated router election on a broadcast network is based on interface priority first, then router ID as a tiebreaker. Setting a higher priority on R2 makes it the preferred candidate, but elections are nonpreemptive, so a reset is required.

  905. Question 905 of 906Refer to the exhibit. Which interface condition is occurring in this output?

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    Correct answer: A. A. collisions

    The explicit presence of collision counters in the output proves that collisions are actively occurring. Distinguishing collision counters from a duplex mismatch requires operational context not provided here, making the literal observation the safest choice.

  906. Question 906 of 906Refer to the exhibit. An engineer configures interface fa0/1 on SW1 and SW2 to pass traffic from two different VLANs. For security reasons, company policy requires the native VLAN to be set to a nondefault value. Which configuration meets this requirement?

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    Correct answer: A. A.

    Configuring an 802.1Q trunk is required to pass multiple VLANs across a single link. The correct option uniquely applies the trunk mode, prunes the allowed VLANs, and changes the native VLAN to a nondefault value.

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