CompTIA A+ Core 2 Practice Exam Questions and Answers – Part 13/15

Practice for the CompTIA A+ Core 2 exam with 16 exam-style practice questions, instant answer reveals, and concise explanations of every correct answer. Topics include: Which edition of Windows 10 does not have the group policy editor enabled?. Follow @CertPunch and visit certpunch.com for more certification practice exams and study content.

Prefer hands-on? Take this round as an interactive practice test — answer every question, get instant feedback, and see your score: Start the CompTIA A+ Core 2 practice test →

What you will practice

  • Which edition of Windows 10 does not have the group policy editor enabled?
  • A company issues tablets to employees that are frequently used in public areas. To prevent unauthorized acces…
  • A coworker is creating a file containing a script. You look over their shoulder and see "net use s:\\fileserv…
  • A user reports their browser redirects to a different search engine and pop-up ads appear even when they aren…
  • While troubleshooting the reason that the File Explorer is crashing on a Windows 10 machine, you determine th…
  • A network technician needs to test whether the TCP/IP protocol stack is properly installed and functioning on…

Answers and explanations

Tap a question to expand the answer and the exam reasoning. Try to commit to your own pick first.

Q1. Which edition of Windows 10 does not have the group policy editor enabled?

Answer: C. Home

The Group Policy Editor is included in professional and enterprise editions but is omitted from the home edition. If an exam question asks about centralized operating system configuration on consumer hardware, expect the home edition to lack administrative tools.

Q2. A company issues tablets to employees that are frequently used in public areas. To prevent unauthorized access, the IT department is considering implementing a biometric screen lock. Which method would be most practical and secure for regu…

Answer: B. Facial recognition.

Facial recognition provides hands-free security ideal for frequent use in public spaces. Retina scanning is too cumbersome for tablets, while swipe patterns are easily compromised by shoulder surfing.

Q3. A coworker is creating a file containing a script. You look over their shoulder and see "net use s:\\fileserver\videos" in the file. Based on this, what type of file extension should this script use?

Answer: C. .bat

A .bat file extension identifies a batch script containing standard Windows command-line instructions like net use. While .vbs or .js are used for more advanced scripting languages, batch files directly execute native cmd commands.

Q4. A user reports their browser redirects to a different search engine and pop-up ads appear even when they aren't browsing. The user installed a free utility application weeks ago. What is the best next step?

Answer: A. Run a full malware scan and remove unwanted browser extensions

Unexpected browser redirects and pop-ups indicate adware, so running a malware scan and removing malicious extensions directly resolves the threat. A system restore is too disruptive for a first step.

Q5. While troubleshooting the reason that the File Explorer is crashing on a Windows 10 machine, you determine that some of its files may have become corrupt. Which of the following utilities should you use to correct this?

Answer: D. sfc

The sfc command scans and repairs corrupted Windows system files, resolving issues like crashing core OS components. Regedit edits the registry, while dxdiag diagnoses audio and video hardware problems.

Q6. A network technician needs to test whether the TCP/IP protocol stack is properly installed and functioning on a local computer without sending any traffic over the network. The technician wants to verify that the computer's network softwar…

Answer: B. 127.0.0.1

Pinging the loopback address tests the internal TCP/IP stack without sending traffic over the network. Other addresses require a functioning network connection, making the loopback address the standard choice for local protocol diagnostics.

Q7. Which file system type is used by default when installing macOS on a modern workstation?

Answer: A. APFS

The Apple File System is the default modern file system for macOS installations, replacing the older HFS plus format. Knowing default operating system file systems is essential for the exam, especially when managing multi-boot environments.

Q8. Your boss has asked you to write a script that will copy all of the files from one hard drive to another each evening. This script should mirror the directories from one drive to the other and ensure they are synchronized each evening. Whi…

Answer: A. robocopy

Robocopy is the correct choice because it synchronizes directories and mirrors drives by deleting files in the destination that no longer exist in the source. While xcopy duplicates files, it lacks the synchronization features needed here.

Q9. A Windows 2019 server is crashing every evening at 2:35 am, but you are not sure why. Which of the following tools should you use to identify the cause of the system crash?

Answer: A. Event viewer

Event Viewer logs system, security, and application events, allowing you to pinpoint what happened right before the server crashed. It provides crucial error codes and timestamps for troubleshooting. The other tools show real-time performance stats or static hardware configurations, not historical event logs.

Q10. A company routinely deploys software updates to employee workstations every month following a predefined approval process with minimal risk. The IT manager wants to ensure these updates are properly categorized in the change management pro…

Answer: C. Standard change

A standard change refers to a routine, low-risk modification that follows a pre-approved process, like monthly patching. It requires minimal additional approval compared to other changes. Emergency changes require urgent fixes, while normal changes need full risk assessment and stakeholder approval beforehand.

Q11. When Jason needs to log in to his bank, he must use a key fob to generate a random number code automatically synchronized to a code on the server for authentication. What type of device is Jason using to log in?

Answer: B. Hardware token

A hardware token is a physical security device that generates a random, time-synchronized one-time password for authentication. This provides strong multifactor security because the user must possess the physical fob. Smart cards and PIV cards require insertion into a reader rather than generating codes.

Q12. Your IT administrator has proposed a new method for deploying security patches to company servers. Before the change is approved, another senior administrator is assigned to review the plan to ensure it follows best practices, minimizes ri…

Answer: B. Peer review

Peer review is the change management step where another knowledgeable administrator evaluates a proposed change for risk and compliance. This collaborative step catches errors before execution. Implementation occurs after approval, and a change freeze temporarily blocks modifications entirely during critical periods.

Q13. Which of the following types of backup would require the MOST time to complete?

Answer: C. Full

A full backup copies all selected data every time it runs, taking the longest to complete but offering the fastest restoration. Incremental and differential backups only copy changes since the last backup, making them faster to run.

Q14. A computer has been performing slowly. During your troubleshooting, you notice that the Task Manager shows the processor is utilizing 90-100% of the system resources immediately after completing the boot-up process. Which of the following…

Answer: C. Disable any unneeded applications configured to automatically startup

Disabling unnecessary startup applications directly resolves high CPU usage immediately following the boot process. You can easily manage these applications using the Startup tab in Task Manager, preventing unwanted programs from launching automatically and draining resources.

Q15. Your company has just installed a brand new email server, but you determined that the server cannot send emails to another server during your initial testing. You decide to check the firewall's ACL to see if the server's outgoing email is…

Answer: B. 25

SMTP uses port 25 to send emails between servers, making it the correct port to open on the firewall. Port 143 is for IMAP and port 110 is for POP3, which are used to retrieve emails rather than send them between servers.

Q16. Which of the following will close all of a user's open programs and services before powering off their Windows 10 computer?

Answer: B. Shutdown

The shutdown option closes all open programs and services before powering off the computer completely. Sleep and hibernate save the current session to memory or disk without closing applications, while lock simply secures the desktop.

More CompTIA A+ Core 2 drills and other practice exams are on @CertPunch. New rounds drop every few days at certpunch.com.

Scroll to Top