Practice for the CompTIA A+ Core 2 exam with 17 exam-style practice questions, instant answer reveals, and concise explanations of every correct answer. Topics include: Which of the following must be enabled to allow a video game console or VoIP handset to configure your firewall automati. Follow @CertPunch and visit certpunch.com for more certification practice exams and study content.
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What you will practice
- Which of the following must be enabled to allow a video game console or VoIP handset to configure your firewa…
- You replaced a failed router with an identical spare from inventory signed in 13 months ago. The failed route…
- You are writing a script that will take an employee's name as the input. Which of the following data types wo…
- Which of the following commands would you use to duplicate the file c:\Users\Jason\Downloads\newfile.docx to…
- Which of the following is considered a trusted app source for APK files?
- A project manager creating internal training materials for new IT security policies copies large sections fro…
Answers and explanations
Tap a question to expand the answer and the exam reasoning. Try to commit to your own pick first.
Q1. Which of the following must be enabled to allow a video game console or VoIP handset to configure your firewall automatically by opening the IP addresses and ports needed for the device to function?
Answer: B. UPnP
Universal Plug and Play allows devices to automatically request open router ports. DHCP assigns IP addresses, while NAT handles private to public address translation.
Q2. You replaced a failed router with an identical spare from inventory signed in 13 months ago. The failed router supported HTTPS, but the spare doesn't. What should you do to enable HTTPS?
Answer: A. Update the firmware
Updating the firmware adds missing features and patches security vulnerabilities on the spare router. Rebooting or resetting the device will not magically enable HTTPS support.
Q3. You are writing a script that will take an employee's name as the input. Which of the following data types would the employee's name be stored in?
Answer: B. String
A string data type stores textual characters like an employee name. Integers hold whole numbers, floats handle decimals, and booleans represent true or false values.
Q4. Which of the following commands would you use to duplicate the file c:\Users\Jason\Downloads\newfile.docx to c:\Users\Jason\Desktop\newfile.docx from the command line?
Answer: D. copy
The copy command duplicates files from one directory to another in Windows. Diskpart manages partitions, chkdsk scans for file system errors, and net user manages accounts.
Q5. Which of the following is considered a trusted app source for APK files?
Answer: A. Play Store
The Google Play Store is the official, trusted source for installing Android package files. The App Store is for iOS, while websites require risky sideloading.
Q6. A project manager creating internal training materials for new IT security policies copies large sections from an external website without proper attribution. The IT manager informs the employee that their actions violate company policies…
Answer: B. Plagiarism
Plagiarism best describes the ethical violation of copying materials without proper attribution. Copyright infringement involves legal ownership rights, while data exfiltration focuses on unauthorized data theft.
Q7. A technician is troubleshooting a video conferencing application used by remote employees. Users report frequent lag, choppy video, and sudden disconnections, even though the application was installed correctly and worked during initial te…
Answer: D. Insufficient internet bandwidth for high-quality video transmission.
The correct answer works because video conferencing requires sustained high throughput, and low bandwidth directly causes lag and dropped sessions. Remember that a firewall would normally block the application entirely, not just degrade its streaming performance.
Q8. Which of the following file types are commonly used by scripts in a Linux command line environment?
Answer: C. .sh
The correct answer works because Bash shell scripts in Linux are saved with the dot SH extension. As a quick exam cue, remember that PS1 belongs to Windows PowerShell and VBS is strictly for Windows environments.
Q9. What information should be recorded on a chain of custody form during a forensic investigation?
Answer: D. Any individual who worked with evidence during the investigation
The correct answer works because chain of custody forms track exactly who handled or controlled the evidence during an investigation. A practical exam tip is to remember that it documents evidence handlers, not necessarily initial bystanders or previous owners.
Q10. A manager wants employees to enter data in a shared spreadsheet but needs to prevent accidental modifications to formulas. What is the best way to achieve this?
Answer: A. Lock the formula cells while keeping data entry fields editable.
The correct answer works because modern spreadsheet applications allow you to lock specific cells while leaving others editable. The strongest distractor fails because making the entire file read-only completely prevents the required collaborative data entry.
Q11. Which of the following commands is used on a Linux system to delete all the files and directories in a Linux system's filesystem?
Answer: A. rm -rf /
The correct answer works because the RM command with recursive and force flags targets the root directory, deleting everything. The asterisk operator only deletes files in the current working directory, not the entire Linux file system.
Q12. A penetration tester sends an email out to 100,000 random email addresses. In the email the attacker sent, it claims that "Your Bank of America account is locked out. Please click here to reset your password." Which of the following attack…
Answer: C. Phishing
Phishing is a mass email attack using a disguised fraudulent message to steal credentials. Spear phishing fails because it targets specific individuals or organizations, whereas this scenario describes a bulk email sent to random addresses.
Q13. A customer is complaining that there are intermittent problems with their PC. As a technician, you don't know exactly what the errors are, so which tool should you use to determine what errors have previously occurred?
Answer: D. Event Viewer
Event Viewer logs historical system and application events, making it the primary tool for diagnosing past errors. Performance Monitor is incorrect because it tracks real-time system resource utilization rather than providing an archive of past system errors.
Q14. You have submitted an RFC to install a security patch on all of your company's Windows 2019 servers during the weekly maintenance window. Which of the following change request documents would describe how the installation of the change wil…
Answer: B. Plan
The plan portion of change documentation details the step-by-step process of how the requested change will be implemented. Scope is incorrect because it simply defines which specific servers or systems are included in the planned update.
Q15. A technician needs to move a 40-pound server from a storage room to the server rack. What is the proper lifting technique to prevent injury?
Answer: B. Lift with your legs and not your back
Lifting with your legs by bending at the knees protects your spine by relying on strong lower body muscles. Lifting with a straight back and bent legs is a standard safety requirement, whereas bending at the waist causes severe back injuries.
Q16. Which of the following is the best reason for quarantining a system suspected of malware infection?
Answer: D. Prevents the malware from spreading to other devices on the network.
Quarantining an infected system isolates it, preventing the malware from propagating to other devices on the network. Backing up files or running antivirus scans should be delayed until containment is complete to avoid copying malicious data.
Q17. A user reports they are receiving frequent alerts that antivirus protection is disabled and file names in their personal folders have been altered. Re-enabling the antivirus protection fails. What is the best next step?
Answer: C. Reboot the computer in safe mode and run a malware removal tool
Booting into Safe Mode loads a minimal environment that prevents malware from actively defending itself. Running a removal tool under normal conditions often fails because the active infection blocks the antivirus software from re-enabling properly.
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