CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Practice Exam Questions and Answers – Part 22/24

Practice for the CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) exam with 19 exam-style practice questions, instant answer reveals, and concise explanations of every correct answer. Topics include: A software developer wants to test their application on multiple operating systems without purchasing separate physical . Follow @CertPunch and visit certpunch.com for more certification practice exams and study content.

Prefer hands-on? Take this round as an interactive practice test — answer every question, get instant feedback, and see your score: Start the CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) practice test →

What you will practice

  • A software developer wants to test their application on multiple operating systems without purchasing separat…
  • A cybersecurity analyst is using a VM in sandbox mode to analyze a suspicious file. They notice that the file…
  • What is the primary architectural difference between Type 1 and Type 2 hypervisors?
  • You just bought a new car and want to use the built-in stereo to make and receive calls on your smartphone. W…
  • Susan, an executive at Dion Training, will be traveling to Italy for a conference next week. She is worried a…
  • Which of the following metrics should you consider to compare the performance of an SSD or HDD?

Answers and explanations

Tap a question to expand the answer and the exam reasoning. Try to commit to your own pick first.

Q1. A software developer wants to test their application on multiple operating systems without purchasing separate physical computers for each OS. They need a solution that runs on top of their existing Windows desktop computer. Which virtuali…

Answer: A. A Type 2 Hypervisor

A Type 2 hypervisor runs as an application on top of an existing host operating system. Type 1 installs on bare metal, which would remove the existing Windows installation.

Q2. A cybersecurity analyst is using a VM in sandbox mode to analyze a suspicious file. They notice that the file attempts to make unauthorized changes to system files and access the network. What makes the sandbox environment critical in this…

Answer: D. It isolates malicious behavior, preventing harm to the host system and network

A sandbox isolates applications in a controlled environment to prevent malicious behavior from harming the host. It allows observation without actually blocking file or network access.

Q3. What is the primary architectural difference between Type 1 and Type 2 hypervisors?

Answer: B. Type 1 hypervisors install directly on bare metal hardware while Type 2 hypervisors run as applications on top of a host operating system

A Type 1 hypervisor installs directly onto bare metal hardware, while a Type 2 hypervisor runs as an application on top of a host operating system. Both types support hardware-assisted virtualization.

Q4. You just bought a new car and want to use the built-in stereo to make and receive calls on your smartphone. Which of the following should you perform to connect your smartphone to the car stereo?

Answer: C. Pairing the device

Bluetooth pairing establishes a trusted wireless connection between the smartphone and the car stereo. Wi-Fi and NFC are distractors because they do not handle standard hands-free calling protocols.

Q5. Susan, an executive at Dion Training, will be traveling to Italy for a conference next week. She is worried about remaining connected to the internet while overseas and plans to use the WiFi in her hotel room and a local coffee shop with h…

Answer: D. VPN

A Virtual Private Network creates an encrypted tunnel that secures data transmissions over untrusted public wireless networks. The other options provide basic internet connectivity but fail to encrypt the traffic or protect her communications from interception.

Q6. Which of the following metrics should you consider to compare the performance of an SSD or HDD?

Answer: C. IOPS

Input/output operations per second, or IOPS, is the standard metric used to compare the performance of solid state drives and hard disk drives. While seek time and latency are relevant, they are physical constraints used to calculate IOPS rather than overall performance metrics themselves.

Q7. A customer says that their laptop webcam produces a blurry image. The driver is up to date, and the webcam is properly detected by the operating system. What is the most likely cause of the issue?

Answer: C. Dust or smudges on the webcam lens

A blurry image from an otherwise functional webcam is usually caused by physical dust or smudges on the camera lens. A loose cable or disabled basic input output system setting would prevent the operating system from detecting the webcam entirely.

Q8. A company needs to install a custom corporate application not available in the public App Store onto employees' iPhones. Which technology should the administrator use to install the app and security profile?

Answer: C. MDM

Mobile Device Management software is used by administrators to securely distribute custom internal applications and security profiles to corporate mobile devices. Global System for Mobile and Code Division Multiple Access are cellular network standards used for voice and data communication.

Q9. What is the MOST common connector type used when connecting a USB cable to the back of a printer?

Answer: C. Type B

The square shaped Universal Serial Bus Type B connector is the standard port found on the back of most legacy and business printers. The Type A connector is used on the computer host side, while mini and micro variants are typically reserved for smaller mobile devices.

Q10. Your company has decided to move all of its data into the cloud. Your company is concerned about the privacy of its data due to some recent data breaches that have been in the news. Therefore, they have decided to purchase cloud storage re…

Answer: C. Private

A private cloud contains services dedicated solely to one organization instead of the general public. Public and community clouds share infrastructure with outsiders, while a hybrid cloud mixes public and private models.

Q11. What type of network cable should be used to prevent crosstalk?

Answer: D. STP

Shielded twisted pair cable prevents crosstalk using a conductive foil braid around the inner wires. Unshielded cable lacks this shield, plenum dictates fire safety, and RJ-11 defines a phone connector.

Q12. You are setting up a cable television in a customer's home. Which connector type should be used to connect the TV tuner to the wall jack when using a coaxial cable?

Answer: B. F type

The F-type connector terminates coaxial cables for television and broadband connections. RJ-45 connects Ethernet, ST connects fiber, and DB-9 connects legacy serial cables.

Q13. Which of the following technologies combines the functionality of a firewall, malware scanner, and other security appliances into one device?

Answer: C. UTM

A unified threat management appliance combines multiple security functions into a single device. Intrusion detection and prevention systems only monitor traffic, while syslog servers simply collect logs.

Q14. Several users from the Sales & Marketing department have called the service desk complaining that they cannot access the internet from their workstations. You arrive at the salesperson's workstation, open the command prompt, and enter the…

Answer: C. The router that connects the Sales & Marketing department to the rest of the company is not functioning properly

Failing to ping the default gateway indicates the local router is down or misconfigured. APIPA addresses and wireless failures prevent local connectivity, while DNS issues only affect name resolution.

Q15. A company has just installed a web server for a new domain name. Which of the following DNS records would need to be created to allow users to reach the website using its domain name and then redirect clients to the proper IPv6 address for…

Answer: B. AAAA

An AAAA record maps a domain name directly to an IPv6 address, whereas a standard A record points to an IPv4 address. The exam expects you to associate the four A's in AAAA with the longer 128-bit IPv6 format.

Q16. What type of cable is most commonly used to terminate a serial connection to a modem?

Answer: B. DB-9

A DB-9 connector is commonly used to terminate an RS-232 serial cable to a modem. RJ-11 is used for phone lines, RJ-45 is used for Ethernet networks, and LC is used for fiber optic cables.

Q17. You are troubleshooting an older wireless network that is running Wireless G (802.11g). This network appears to have a lot of collisions and interference. You look up the configuration on two of the three access points in the area and see…

Answer: A. Channel 1

In the 2.4 gigahertz frequency band used by 802.11g networks, channels one, six, and eleven are the only three non-overlapping channels available. Using these specific channels prevents interference and ensures maximum throughput across multiple overlapping access points.

Q18. A customer's hard drive has crashed and needs to be replaced. When replacing the internal 5400 RPM HDD, which cable should you use?

Answer: B. SATA

Serial ATA, or SATA, is the standard interface and cable type used for internal hard disk drives in desktop and laptop computers. Options like Lightning and FireWire are used for external peripherals, while USB-C is primarily reserved for external connectivity.

More CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) drills and other practice exams are on @CertPunch. New rounds drop every few days at certpunch.com.

Scroll to Top