Practice for the CCNA exam with 22 exam-style practice questions, instant answer reveals, and concise explanations of every correct answer. Topics include: Refer to the exhibit. Which statement explains the configuration error message that is received?. Follow @CertPunch and visit certpunch.com for more certification practice exams and study content.
Prefer hands-on? Take this round as an interactive practice test — answer every question, get instant feedback, and see your score: Start the CCNA 2026 practice test →
What you will practice
- Refer to the exhibit. Which statement explains the configuration error message that is received?
- Refer to the exhibit. Which interface is used to send traffic to the destination network?
- Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R3 have the default configuration. The router R2 priority is set to 99…
- Refer to the exhibit. The P2P Blocking Action option is disabled on the WLC. The security team has a new requ…
- Refer to the exhibit. The EtherChannel is configured with a speed of 1000 and duplex as full on both ends of…
- Refer to the exhibit. Based only on the metric values shown in the routing table, which next-hop IP address h…
Answers and explanations
Tap a question to expand the answer and the exam reasoning. Try to commit to your own pick first.
Q1. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement explains the configuration error message that is received?
Answer: D. D. It is a broadcast IP address.
A router rejects the assignment of a network or broadcast address to an interface. For the subnet in question, the provided IP is the highest address in the block, making it the broadcast address and triggering the error.
Q2. Refer to the exhibit. Which interface is used to send traffic to the destination network?
Answer: B. B. G0/12
Routers choose the path with the lowest administrative distance when multiple routing protocols advertise the same network. Among the internal EIGRP routes, the lowest metric determines the forwarding interface.
Q3. Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R3 have the default configuration. The router R2 priority is set to 99. Which commands on R3 configure it as the DR in the 10.0.4.0/24 network?
Answer: D. R3(config-if)#ip ospf priority 100
To win the designated router election, a router must have the highest OSPF interface priority on that segment. Configuring a priority of 100 on the correct active interface beats R2's priority of 99, forcing R3 to become the DR on the next election cycle.
Q4. Refer to the exhibit. The P2P Blocking Action option is disabled on the WLC. The security team has a new requirement for each client to retain their assigned IP addressing as the clients move between locations in the campus network. Which…
Answer: A. A. Enable the Static IP Tunneling option.
Static IP tunneling anchors a wireless client session to its original controller. This maintains Layer 3 connectivity and preserves the assigned IP address as clients roam across different access points and VLANs.
Q5. Refer to the exhibit. The EtherChannel is configured with a speed of 1000 and duplex as full on both ends of channel group 1. What is the next step to configure the channel on switch A to respond to but not initiate LACP communication?
Answer: D. channel-group 1 mode passive
The passive mode setting is an LACP option that causes the switch to respond to LACP packets but not initiate them. The active mode initiates negotiation, while desirable and auto are PAgP modes.
Q6. Refer to the exhibit. Based only on the metric values shown in the routing table, which next-hop IP address has the highest metric?
Answer: C. C. 10.10.10.3
The bracketed values in an OSPF routing entry show the administrative distance and the metric. Because the route via 10.10.10.3 displays a metric of 100, it is higher than the metrics for the other listed next hops.
Q7. Refer to the exhibit. How many arrays are present in the JSON data?
Answer: B. B. three
JSON arrays are defined by square brackets holding ordered lists of values. While the overall file is a single JSON object enclosed in curly braces, three distinct key-value pairs contain square brackets, making three the correct array count.
Q8. Refer to the exhibit. Remote VTY access to R4 must be configured and these requirements must be met: • Only Telnet access is allowed. • Local username/password authentication must be used for login. • The administrator must be able to reac…
Answer: A. A. ! conf t ! username test1 password testpass1 enable secret level 15 0 Test123 ! line vty 0 15 login local transport input telnet
The transport input telnet command restricts access to Telnet only, while login local enforces the local user database. The enable secret command securely hashes the privileged execution password, preventing it from being stored in clear text within the running configuration.
Q9. Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must configure GigabitEthernet1/1 to accommodate voice and data traffic. Which configuration accomplishes this task?
Answer: A. A. interface GigabitEthernet1/1
Cisco IP phone deployments use an access port configured with a data VLAN and a voice VLAN. Trunk mode is incorrect because the native voice VLAN feature handles 802.1Q tagging for the phone automatically on the access port.
Q10. Refer to the exhibit. SW_1 and SW_12 represent two companies that are merging. They use separate network vendors. The VLANs on both sides have been migrated to share IP subnets. Which command sequence must be issued on both sides to join t…
Answer: A. A. interface GigabitEthernet0/1
Interconnecting switches from different vendors requires configuring a static IEEE 802.1Q trunk because Cisco proprietary negotiation protocols will fail. Options relying on dynamic trunking are eliminated because DTP is Cisco-proprietary and interoperability across vendors is not guaranteed.
Q11. Refer to the exhibit. A secondary route is required on router R1 to pass traffic to the LAN network on R2 if the primary link fails. Which command must be entered to configure the router?
Answer: D. D. ip route 10.0.2.0 255.255.255.248 10.0.0.6 91
A floating static route uses an administrative distance higher than the primary routing protocol to act as a backup. The correct destination network must match the subnet mask, and the next hop must point to the correct secondary router.
Q12. Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer must configure communication between PC A and the File Server. To prevent interruption for any other communications, which command must be configured?
Answer: C. C. switchport truck allowed vlan add 13
Trunks only forward traffic for VLANs explicitly listed in the allowed list. Using the add keyword safely inserts VLAN 13 without erasing the currently allowed VLANs, whereas using an equals configuration would wipe the existing list.
Q13. Refer to the exhibit. The IPv6 address for the LAN segment on router R2 must be configured using the EUI-64 format. Which IPv6 interface ID will be generated?
Answer: A. A. 10A0:ABFF:FECC:1
EUI-64 creates an interface identifier by injecting FFFE into the middle of a MAC address. The seventh bit, known as the universal or local bit, is flipped, turning the hex 12 into 10.
Q14. Refer to the exhibit. This ACL is configured to allow client access only to HTTP, HTTPS, and DNS services via UDP. The new administrator wants to add TCP access to the DNS service. Which configuration updates the ACL efficiently?
Answer: B. B. ip access-list extended Services 35 permit tcp 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 host 198.51.100.11 eq domain
Named access control lists allow you to insert new entries seamlessly using sequence numbers. Applying sequence 35 ensures the permit rule is evaluated before the final explicit deny at sequence 40.
Q15. Refer to the exhibit. The switches are connected via a Cat5 Ethernet cable that is tested successfully. The interfaces are configured as access ports and are both in a down status. What is the cause of the issue?
Answer: A. A. The speed settings on the switches are mismatched
Ethernet ports must successfully negotiate or match their speed settings to establish a physical layer connection. A speed mismatch leaves both interfaces down, while a duplex mismatch would keep the link up but cause errors.
Q16. Refer to the exhibit. EIGRP 10.10.10.0/24 [90/1441] via F0/10 EIGRP 10.10.10.0/24 [90/1444] via F0/11 EIGRP 10.10.10.0/24 [90/1442] via F0/12 OSPF 10.10.10.0/24 [110/20] via F0/13 OSPF 10.10.10.0/24 [110/30] via F0/14 Packets received by t…
Answer: A. A. F0/10
The router selects the route with the lowest administrative distance, preferring EIGRP over OSPF. Among the EIGRP paths, the route with the lowest metric is chosen.
Q17. Refer to the exhibit. All routers in the network are configured. R2 must become the DR at the next OSPF election. After the engineer connected the devices, R1 was elected as the DR. Which command sequence should be configured on R2 so it b…
Answer: A. A. R2(config)#intergface gi0/0 R2(config-if)#ip ospf priority 100
OSPF designated router election on a broadcast network is based on interface priority first, then router ID as a tiebreaker. Setting a higher priority on R2 makes it the preferred candidate, but elections are nonpreemptive, so a reset is required.
Q18. Refer to the exhibit. Which interface condition is occurring in this output?
Answer: A. A. collisions
The explicit presence of collision counters in the output proves that collisions are actively occurring. Distinguishing collision counters from a duplex mismatch requires operational context not provided here, making the literal observation the safest choice.
Q19. Refer to the exhibit. An engineer configures interface fa0/1 on SW1 and SW2 to pass traffic from two different VLANs. For security reasons, company policy requires the native VLAN to be set to a nondefault value. Which configuration meets…
Answer: A. A.
Configuring an 802.1Q trunk is required to pass multiple VLANs across a single link. The correct option uniquely applies the trunk mode, prunes the allowed VLANs, and changes the native VLAN to a nondefault value.
More CCNA 2026 drills and other practice exams are on @CertPunch. New rounds drop every few days at certpunch.com.