Practice for the CCNA exam with 23 exam-style practice questions, instant answer reveals, and concise explanations of every correct answer. Topics include: Refer to the exhibit. Which route type is configured to reach the Internet?. Follow @CertPunch and visit certpunch.com for more certification practice exams and study content.
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What you will practice
- Refer to the exhibit. Which route type is configured to reach the Internet?
- Refer to the exhibit. How will switch SW2 handle traffic from VLAN 10 on SW1?
- Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is configuring a WLAN to connect with the 172.16.10.0/24 network on…
- Refer to the exhibit. Users need to connect to the wireless network with IEEE 802.11r-compatible devices. The…
- Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator must permit traffic from the 10.10.0.0/24 subnet to the WAN on…
- Refer to the exhibit. Which IP route command created the best path for a packet destined for 10.10.10.3?
Answers and explanations
Tap a question to expand the answer and the exam reasoning. Try to commit to your own pick first.
Q1. Refer to the exhibit. Which route type is configured to reach the Internet?
Answer: D. D. default route
The asterisk and the 0.0.0.0/0 mask identify the default route, which is used to reach unknown networks like the Internet. Floating static routes, host routes, and network routes do not match all destination IP addresses.
Q2. Refer to the exhibit. How will switch SW2 handle traffic from VLAN 10 on SW1?
Answer: B. B. It sends the traffic to VLAN 100.
A native VLAN mismatch causes untagged traffic to be placed into the receiving switch's native VLAN. Since SW1 sends VLAN 10 untagged, SW2 assigns it to its configured native VLAN of 100.
Q3. Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is configuring a WLAN to connect with the 172.16.10.0/24 network on VLAN 20. The engineer wants to limit the number of devices that connect to the WLAN on the USERWL SSID to 125. Which configuration…
Answer: B. B. In the WLAN configuration, set the Maximum Allowed Clients value to 125.
To limit client associations on a specific WLAN, you must configure the Maximum Allowed Clients setting in the WLAN configuration. The other options either affect unrelated management functions or standard beacon intervals.
Q4. Refer to the exhibit. Users need to connect to the wireless network with IEEE 802.11r-compatible devices. The connection must be maintained as users travel between floors or to other areas in the building. What must be the configuration of…
Answer: C. C. Enable Fast Transition and select the FT PSK option.
IEEE 802.11r provides Fast BSS Transition for seamless roaming. Because the exhibit shows a pre-shared key configuration, you must enable Fast Transition using the FT PSK option rather than FT 802.1x.
Q5. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator must permit traffic from the 10.10.0.0/24 subnet to the WAN on interface Serial0. What is the effect of the configuration as the administrator applies the command?
Answer: C. C. The router fails to apply the access list to the interface.
Applying an ACL to an interface requires the ip access-group command. Because the configuration uses ip access-list, the router rejects the syntax and fails to apply the ACL to Serial0.
Q6. Refer to the exhibit. Which IP route command created the best path for a packet destined for 10.10.10.3?
Answer: B. B. ip route 10.10.10.0 255.255.255.240 g0/0
The longest prefix match rule dictates that the route with the highest subnet mask is preferred. Option B creates a slash twenty-eight route, which is the most specific match for the destination address, beating the wider slash twenty-two and slash eight routes.
Q7. Refer to the exhibit. Users at a branch office are experiencing application performance issues, poor VoIP audio quality, and slow downloads. What is the cause of the issues?
Answer: B. B. interface configuration
High collisions and CRC errors on a switch port typically indicate an interface configuration problem, specifically a duplex mismatch. Interface misconfigurations force half-duplex operation, causing dropped packets and severe performance degradation across voice and data applications.
Q8. Refer to the exhibit. Which entry is the longest prefix match for host IP address 192.168.10.5?
Answer: B. B. 2
The longest prefix match rule selects the route with the highest subnet mask value to find the most specific network. Entry two provides a slash twenty-six mask, which correctly encompasses the target address while being more specific than competing routes.
Q9. Refer to the exhibit. The given Windows PC is requesting the IP address of the host at www.cisco.com. To which IP address is the request sent?
Answer: A. A. 192.168.1.253
Client computers send Domain Name System queries directly to their configured DNS server to resolve website hostnames. The ipconfig output explicitly lists the DNS server address, which receives the resolution request instead of the default gateway.
Q10. Refer to the exhibit. Which rule does the DHCP server use when there is an IP address conflict?
Answer: A. A. The address is removed from the pool until the conflict is resolved.
A Cisco Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol server automatically removes conflicting IP addresses from its assignable pool. This prevents future duplicate assignments until an administrator manually clears the conflict logging using specific command syntax.
Q11. Which interface is used to send traffic to destination host 10.90.207.87?
Answer: A. A. F0/7
Routers first compare administrative distance to choose the preferred route source. OSPF has a lower administrative distance than RIP, and between two OSPF routes, the lowest metric wins, directing traffic out F0/7.
Q12. Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer configures the Cisco WLC to authenticate local wireless clients against a RADIUS server. Which task must be performed to complete the process?
Answer: C. C. Select Enable next to Network User
A Wireless LAN Controller must explicitly enable RADIUS servers for Network User authentication to process client logins. Management access is reserved for administrative WLC logins, distinguishing it from standard wireless user authentication.
Q13. An engineer configures interface Gi1/0 on the company PE router to connect to an ISP. Neighbor discovery is disabled. Which action is necessary to complete the configuration if the ISP uses third-party network devices?
Answer: B. B. Enable LLDP globally.
Link Layer Discovery Protocol is an industry-standard protocol used to discover directly connected non-Cisco devices. Cisco Discovery Protocol will not work with third-party ISP routers, making global LLDP activation the required step.
Q14. Refer to the exhibit. VoIP is being implemented in the network using VLAN ID 73 and named "VoIP". Each user needs a Cisco IP phone at their desk. Switchport e0/0 has been configured as an access port in the data VLAN. Cisco Discovery Proto…
Answer: D. D. vlan 73 name VoIP e0/0 switchport voice vlan 73
Applying the switchport voice vlan command to an access port configures a special data and voice VLAN trunk for a connected IP phone. Trunking options are eliminated because a standard trunk configuration would incorrectly place the attached PC into the voice VLAN.
Q15. Refer to the exhibit. The network engineer is configuring router R2 as a replacement router on the network. After the initial configuration is applied, it is determined that R2 failed to show R1 as a neighbor. Which configuration must be a…
Answer: A. ip ospf hello-interval 10
OSPF neighbor adjacencies require strict matching of the hello and dead intervals between directly connected interfaces. The router-id option is eliminated because a router-id conflict prevents adjacency formation but does not match the specific hello interval mismatch shown in the topology.
Q16. Refer to the exhibit. Which command configures a floating static route to provide a backup to the primary link?
Answer: A. A. ip route 209.165.200.224 255.255.255.224 209.165.202.129 254
Configuring a floating static route requires appending an administrative distance higher than the primary routing protocol to the static route command. The default static route options are eliminated because they lack a high administrative distance and would therefore override the primary link.
Q17. Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1, R2, and R3 use a protocol to identify the neighbors' IP addresses, hardware platforms, and software versions. A network engineer must configure R2 to avoid sharing any neighbor information with R3, and mai…
Answer: C. C. Configure the no cdp enable command on g0/2.
Cisco Discovery Protocol is enabled globally by default, but you can disable it on a single interface to block neighbor information on that specific link. Disabling CDP only on the link toward R3 meets the requirement while maintaining the neighbor relationship with R1.
Q18. Refer to the exhibit. After the switch configuration, the ping test fails between PC A and PC B. Which trunk parameter mismatch is shown in the exhibit?
Answer: D. D. There is a native VLAN mismatch.
The exhibit indicates a native VLAN mismatch because Switch 1 uses VLAN 1 while Switch 2 uses VLAN 99. On the exam, look for differing native VLAN assignments to identify this trunking error, which causes unexpected traffic behavior.
Q19. Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 are configured with RIP as the dynamic routing protocol. A network engineer must configure R1 with a floating static route to serve as a backup route to network 192.168.23.0. Which command must the e…
Answer: C. C. ip route 192.168.23.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.13.3 121
A floating static route requires an administrative distance higher than the primary routing protocol to remain hidden until the primary fails. Since RIP has an administrative distance of 120, setting the static route to 121 ensures it only activates when the RIP route disappears.
Q20. What is represented by the word "R29" within this JSON schema?
Answer: D. D. value
In a JSON key-value pair, the item to the right of the colon represents the value assigned to the key. Understanding JSON data structures is essential for interacting with REST APIs on the exam.
Q21. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 resides in OSPF Area 0. After updating the R1 configuration to influence the paths that it will use to direct traffic, an engineer verified that each of the four Gigabit interfaces has a route to 10.10.0.0/1…
Answer: B. B. GigabitEthernet0/1
Open Shortest Path First calculates the metric by dividing the reference bandwidth by the interface bandwidth. The interface with the lowest calculated cost is chosen, so verifying the bandwidth commands in the exhibit reveals the primary path.
Q22. Refer to the exhibit. What is the cause of poor performance on router R19?
Answer: D. D. speed and duplex mismatch
Collisions should never occur on a properly functioning full-duplex link. Seeing collisions alongside CRC errors strongly points to a speed or duplex mismatch, eliminating simple port oversubscription as the root cause.
Q23. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of configuration is represented in the output?
Answer: D. D. Puppet
Puppet manifests use a domain-specific language easily identified by the hash rocket arrow syntax. Ansible and Chef rely on YAML or Ruby code respectively, so spotting the arrow confirms Puppet.
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