Practice for the CCNA exam with 23 exam-style practice questions, instant answer reveals, and concise explanations of every correct answer. Topics include: Refer to the exhibit. Network services must be enabled on interface Gi1/0/34. Which configuration meets the needs for th. Follow @CertPunch and visit certpunch.com for more certification practice exams and study content.
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What you will practice
- Refer to the exhibit. Network services must be enabled on interface Gi1/0/34. Which configuration meets the n…
- An engineer must configure neighbor discovery between the company router and an ISP. What is the next step to…
- Refer to the exhibit. Configurations for the switch and PCs are complete. Which configuration must be applied…
- Refer to the exhibit. On R1, which routing protocol is in use on the route to 192.168.10.1?
- Refer to the exhibit. Which switch in this configuration will be elected as the root bridge?
- Refer to the exhibit. What is the subnet mask of the route to the 10.10.13.160 prefix?
Answers and explanations
Tap a question to expand the answer and the exam reasoning. Try to commit to your own pick first.
Q1. Refer to the exhibit. Network services must be enabled on interface Gi1/0/34. Which configuration meets the needs for this implementation?
Answer: C. C. interface Gi1/0/34 switchport mode access switchport access vlan 400 switchport voice vlan 4041
An access port assigns the data VLAN while a separate voice VLAN command supports IP phones. The switchport mode access command is required for end-host connectivity. Trunk configurations are incorrect because they are designed for switch-to-switch links.
Q2. An engineer must configure neighbor discovery between the company router and an ISP. What is the next step to complete the configuration if the ISP uses a third-party router?
Answer: A. A. Enable LLDP globally.
Neighbor discovery with third-party devices requires the standards-based Link Layer Discovery Protocol. Even if interfaces are configured to transmit and receive, LLDP must be globally enabled. Cisco Discovery Protocol is proprietary and will not function with non-Cisco equipment.
Q3. Refer to the exhibit. Configurations for the switch and PCs are complete. Which configuration must be applied so that VLANs 2 and 3 communicate back and forth?
Answer: B. B. interface GigabitEthernet0/0.10 encapsulation dot1Q 3 ip address 10.10.2.10 255.255.254.0
Router-on-a-stick requires a subinterface with 802.1Q encapsulation matching the VLAN ID. The IP address and subnet mask must align exactly with the host subnet. Incorrect encapsulation numbers or native keywords will disrupt inter-VLAN routing.
Q4. Refer to the exhibit. On R1, which routing protocol is in use on the route to 192.168.10.1?
Answer: D. D. EIGRP
A route marked with the letter D in a Cisco routing table indicates it was learned via EIGRP. The administrative distance of 90 further confirms an internal EIGRP route. Other routing protocols have different designated letter codes.
Q5. Refer to the exhibit. Which switch in this configuration will be elected as the root bridge?
Answer: D. D. SW4: 0C:0A:05:22:05:97
Spanning Tree Protocol elects the root bridge based on the lowest bridge ID, combining priority and MAC address. The switch with the lowest priority value wins. If priorities tie, the lowest MAC address breaks the tie and secures the root bridge role.
Q6. Refer to the exhibit. What is the subnet mask of the route to the 10.10.13.160 prefix?
Answer: D. D. 255.255.255.248
The subnet mask 255.255.255.248 corresponds to a slash 29 prefix length. Routing tables display the prefix length, which directly translates to the subnet mask for the route entry.
Q7. Refer to the exhibit. Clients on the WLAN are required to use 802.11r. What action must be taken to meet the requirement?
Answer: D. D. Set the Fast Transition option to Enable and enable FT 802.1X under Authentication Key Management.
802.11r is implemented by enabling Fast Transition and selecting the appropriate FT authentication method, such as FT 802.1X, under Authentication Key Management. This ensures standards-based fast roaming. CCKM is a legacy Cisco proprietary method that does not meet the modern 802.11r standard.
Q8. Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is configuring a wireless LAN with Web Passthrough Layer 3 Web Policy. Which action must the engineer take to complete the configuration?
Answer: D. D. Set the Layer 2 Security to None.
For Web Passthrough, the WLAN must have Layer 2 Security set to None to allow clients to associate and obtain an IP address. The controller then intercepts HTTP traffic for redirection. Configuring 802.1X or WPA encryption would prevent the open Layer 2 access required for this policy.
Q9. Refer to the exhibit. The engineer configured the VLANs on the new AccSw2 switch. A router-on-a-stick is connected to both switches. How must the ports be configured on AccSw2 to establish full connectivity between the two switches and for…
Answer: C. C. interface GigabitEthernet1/3 switchport mode access switchport access vlan 10 ! interface GigabitEthernet1/24 switchport mode trunk
Server1 must be placed into its assigned VLAN using switchport mode access and the correct access VLAN command. The inter-switch link must be configured as a trunk to carry multiple VLANs between switches. Restricting allowed VLANs or using the wrong access VLAN breaks connectivity.
Q10. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output, what is the most likely cause of the issue?
Answer: B. B. wrong cable type
An interface showing a down/down state with a notconnect status indicates a Layer 1 physical problem. A wrong cable type or cabling issue prevents physical link detection. Port security or STP results in specific error states, while a shutdown interface displays as administratively down.
Q11. Refer to the exhibit. An engineer assigns IP addressing to the current VLAN with three PCs. The configuration must also account for the expansion of 30 additional VLANs using the same Class C subnet for subnetting and host count. Which com…
Answer: B. Switch(config-if)#ip address 192.168.0.1 255.255.255.248
Borrowing five host bits from a /24 network creates 32 subnets, fulfilling the expansion requirement while leaving three host bits per subnet. This provides six usable addresses per VLAN, which is sufficient for the PCs. Larger subnet masks waste address space and fail to meet the growth needs.
Q12. Refer to the exhibit. The image server and client A are running an application that transfers an extremely high volume of data between the two. An engineer is configuring a dedicated circuit between R1 and R2. Which set of commands must th…
Answer: A. R2(config)#ip route 192.168.0.100 255.255.255.255 10.10.10.5
Host-specific static routes direct traffic for a single device without altering the default routing path. Using a slash thirty-two mask ensures only the image server and client use the dedicated circuit, eliminating broader subnet options that could redirect unrelated traffic.
Q13. Refer to the exhibit. The primary route across Gi0/0 is configured on both routers. A secondary route must be configured to establish connectivity between the workstation networks. Which command set must be configured to complete this task?
Answer: C. C. R1 – ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.224 172.16.0.6 111 R2 – ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.0.5 112
Floating static routes require a higher administrative distance than the dynamic protocol to act as backups. The trap options use incorrect subnet masks or low administrative distances, which would override the primary OSPF link.
Q14. Refer to the exhibit. IPv6 is being implemented within the enterprise. The command ipv6 unicast-routing is configured. Interface Gig0/0 on R1 must be configured to provide a dynamic assignment using the assigned IPv6 block. Which command a…
Answer: C. C. ipv6 address 2001:DB8:FFFF:FCF3::64 eui-64
The EUI command dynamically generates the interface identifier using the assigned prefix. Incorrect options fail because link-local commands restrict the scope, and autoconfig does not accept a hardcoded prefix.
Q15. Refer to the exhibit. Assume the switch has already learned Sales-1's MAC address on interface Gi1/0/1. Sales-4 sends a data frame to Sales-1. What does the switch do as it receives the frame from Sales-4?
Answer: B. B. Learn the source MAC address on Sales-4's ingress port and forward the frame only out the port connected to Sales-1.
A switch learns the source MAC on ingress and forwards known unicast frames only out the destination port. The flooding distractor fails because the destination is already in the MAC address table.
Q16. Refer to the exhibit. After you apply the given configurations to R1 and R2, you notice that OSPFv3 fails to form a neighbor adjacency.
Answer: A. A. The area numbers on R1 and R2 are mismatched
OSPF interfaces must share the exact same area ID to form a neighbor adjacency. The distractors fail because router IDs and IPv6 addresses only need to be unique, and OSPF does not use autonomous system numbers.
Q17. Refer to the exhibit. Which prefix did router R1 learn from internal EIGRP?
Answer: D. D. 192.168.2.0/24
In a Cisco IP routing table, routes learned via internal EIGRP are marked with the letter D and have a default administrative distance of ninety. The correct option is the only route displaying this specific protocol identifier and administrative distance.
Q18. Refer to the exhibit. A company is configuring a failover plan and wants a backup floating static default route to take over if the primary link fails. Which command should be used for the primary static default route?
Answer: A. A. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 <primary-next-hop>
A primary static route is configured with a default administrative distance of one by simply specifying the next hop. The backup floating route is then configured separately with a higher administrative distance to ensure it only activates when the primary fails.
Q19. Refer to the exhibit. When PC-A sends traffic to PC-B, which network component is in charge of receiving the packet from PC-A, verifying the IP addresses, and forwarding the packet to PC-B?
Answer: A. A. router
Routers perform layer three routing functions to forward traffic between different IP subnets. A switch only operates at layer two, while load balancers and firewalls perform specific edge functions rather than basic inter-vlan routing.
Q20. Refer to the exhibit. When PC1 sends a packet to PC2, the packet has which source and destination IP address when it arrives at interface Gi0/0 on router R2?
Answer: C. C. source 192.168.10.10 and destination 192.168.20.10
Standard IP routing preserves the original source and destination IP addresses end to end across all transit routers. Routers only rewrite the layer two MAC addresses at each hop, making the original host addresses the correct choice.
Q21. Refer to the exhibit. Which VLAN ID is associated with the default VLAN in the given environment?
Answer: A. A. VLAN 1
On Cisco switches, all ports belong to VLAN one by default out of the box. This factory setting remains consistent regardless of any additional custom VLANs configured on the switch.
Q22. Refer to the exhibit. Which change to the configuration on Switch2 allows the two switches to establish an EtherChannel?
Answer: C. C. Change the LACP mode to active
LACP requires at least one side of an EtherChannel to be configured in active mode to initiate negotiation. Changing the mode to active creates the necessary dynamic negotiation, whereas leaving both sides passive prevents the bundle from forming.
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