Practice for the CCNA exam with 23 exam-style practice questions, instant answer reveals, and concise explanations of every correct answer. Topics include: Refer to the exhibit. Which type of JSON data is shown?. Follow @CertPunch and visit certpunch.com for more certification practice exams and study content.
Prefer hands-on? Take this round as an interactive practice test — answer every question, get instant feedback, and see your score: Start the CCNA 2026 practice test →
What you will practice
- Refer to the exhibit. A packet sourced from 10.10.10.1 is destined for 172.16.3.254. What is the subnet mask…
- Refer to the exhibit. What is the next-hop IP address for R2 so that PC2 reaches the application server via E…
- Refer to the exhibit. Which command enables OSPF on the point-to-point link between routers R1 and R2 using a…
- Refer to the exhibit. Which route type does the routing protocol Code D represent in the output?
- Refer to the exhibit. A packet is being sent across router R1 to host 172.16.3.14. To which destination does…
- Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants VLAN 67 traffic to be untagged between Switch 1 and Swi…
Answers and explanations
Tap a question to expand the answer and the exam reasoning. Try to commit to your own pick first.
Q1. Refer to the exhibit. A packet sourced from 10.10.10.1 is destined for 172.16.3.254. What is the subnet mask of the destination route?
Answer: B. B. 255.255.254.0
The destination falls within the subnet, and the correct mask proves the longest prefix match applies. The distractors represent incorrect boundary calculations, so eliminating them relies on verifying the actual range.
Q2. Refer to the exhibit. What is the next-hop IP address for R2 so that PC2 reaches the application server via EIGRP?
Answer: B. B. 10.10.10.6
The routing table explicitly lists the next hop IP address used to forward traffic. The trap options present local interface or end-user IP addresses, which you eliminate by reading the explicit route entry.
Q3. Refer to the exhibit. Which command enables OSPF on the point-to-point link between routers R1 and R2 using a network statement?
Answer: C. C. network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
The network command enables OSPF on interfaces matching the specified subnet and wildcard mask. The distractors fail because router ID, priority, and neighbor commands do not activate the protocol on the link.
Q4. Refer to the exhibit. Which route type does the routing protocol Code D represent in the output?
Answer: B. B. route learned through EIGRP
The letter D in the routing table designates a route learned via EIGRP. The distractors fail because connected routes use C, static routes use S, and internal BGP uses B.
Q5. Refer to the exhibit. A packet is being sent across router R1 to host 172.16.3.14. To which destination does the router send the packet?
Answer: D. D. 207.165.200.254 via Serial0/0/1
Routers use longest prefix match logic to select the most specific route for a destination. Option D correctly identifies the next hop for the slash twenty eight subnet, eliminating the broader slash twenty four and default routes.
Q6. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants VLAN 67 traffic to be untagged between Switch 1 and Switch 2, while all other VLANs are to remain tagged. Which command accomplishes this task?
Answer: D. D. switchport trunk native vlan 67
In IEEE 802.1Q trunking, the native VLAN is forwarded without a tag. Configuring the native VLAN changes the untagged traffic parameter, whereas the allowed VLAN command simply filters which tagged VLANs can cross the trunk.
Q7. Refer to the exhibit. Which action is taken by the router when a packet is sourced from 10.10.10.2 and destined for 10.10.10.16?
Answer: D. D. It discards the packets.
When a router lacks a matching route and has no gateway of last resort, it drops the packet and sends an unreachable message. Options suggesting flooding or queueing are incorrect because routers drop unknown destinations immediately.
Q8. Refer to the exhibit. Which path is used by the router for Internet traffic?
Answer: B. B. 0.0.0.0/0
The 0.0.0.0/0 entry represents the default route, which catches all non-local traffic bound for the Internet. The other options are specific subnets that would only match local network destinations.
Q9. Refer to the exhibit. Which switch in this configuration will be elected as the root bridge? SW1: 0C:E4:82:33:62:23 SW2: 0C:0E:16:11:05:97 SW3: 0C:E0:16:1A:3C:9D SW4: 0C:00:18:A1:B3:19
Answer: B. B. SW2
Spanning Tree elects the root bridge based on the lowest bridge ID. When switches tie on priority, the lowest MAC address breaks the tie, making SW2 the winner over SW3.
Q10. Refer to the exhibit. What is identified by the word switch within line 2 of the JSON Schema?
Answer: D. D. key
In JSON format, the string appearing before the colon is the key. Therefore, the word switch identifies the key, and the associated data following the colon represents its value.
Q11. Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer must provide configured IP addressing details to investigate a firewall rule issue. Which subnet and mask identify what is configured on the en0 interface?
Answer: C. C. 10.8.128.0/19
The hexadecimal netmask converts to a slash nineteen prefix length, making the third octet block size thirty-two. Because one hundred thirty-eight falls between one hundred twenty-eight and one hundred fifty-nine, the correct configured network address is ten point eight point one hundred twenty-eight point zero.
Q12. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the LACP neighbor status, in which mode is the SW1 port channel configured?
Answer: B. B. active
Link Aggregation Control Protocol requires at least one side to be in active mode to actively initiate negotiation. Since the partner is operating in passive mode, the local switch must be in active mode to successfully form the port channel.
Q13. Refer to the exhibit. A static route must be configured on R14 to forward traffic for the 172.21.34.0/25 network that resides on R86. Which command must be used to fulfill the request?
Answer: B. B. ip route 172.21.34.0 255.255.255.128 10.73.65.66
A static route requires the exact destination subnet mask and a valid next-hop IP address. The /25 network requires a 255.255.255.128 mask, and the next-hop must be the remote router's IP on the shared link, eliminating the other subnet sizes.
Q14. Refer to the exhibit. What is the issue with the interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1?
Answer: D. D. duplex mismatch
Collisions on a Gigabit Ethernet interface indicate a duplex mismatch. Gigabit links should operate in full-duplex mode, making collision counters increment abnormally when connected to a half-duplex device.
Q15. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 receives static routing updates from routers A, B, C, and D. The network engineer wants R1 to advertise static routes in OSPF area 1. Which summary address must be advertised in OSPF?
Answer: D. D. 10.1.40.0/23
Route summarization finds the smallest subnet boundary that encompasses all required prefixes. The /23 mask cleanly covers the address ranges of both the 40 and 41 third octets, avoiding the smaller, incomplete /24 and /25 options.
Q16. Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must add a subnet for a new office that will add 20 users to the network. Which IPv4 network and subnet mask combination does the engineer assign to minimize wasting addresses?
Answer: D. D. 10.10.225.32 255.255.255.224
Subnetting for a specific number of hosts requires calculating the needed host bits and finding a valid network boundary. Supporting twenty users requires a /27 network, which provides thirty usable addresses while minimizing wasted space.
Q17. Refer to the exhibit. Which action do the switches take on the trunk link?
Answer: B. B. The trunk forms, but the mismatched native VLANs are merged into a single broadcast domain.
An 802.1Q trunk will still form between switches even if the native VLANs do not match. The trap option of err-disabled applies to native VLAN mismatches only when strict tagging violations are enforced, but a standard trunk simply merges the mismatched untagged VLANs into a single broadcast domain.
Q18. Which interface is used to send traffic to the route shown in the exhibit?
Answer: B. B. G0/20
Cisco routers select the best route by first comparing administrative distance, and then comparing the metric. OSPF has a lower administrative distance than RIP, so the router installs the OSPF route with the lowest metric, directing traffic out G0/20.
Q19. Refer to the exhibit. The network engineer is configuring a new WLAN and is told to use a setup password for authentication instead of the RADIUS servers. Which additional set of tasks must the engineer perform to complete the configuratio…
Answer: D. D. Select WPA2 Policy Enable PSK
Configuring WPA2 with a Pre-Shared Key provides local password authentication without relying on a RADIUS server. Any option enabling 802.1X is eliminated because 802.1X mandates external authentication, which contradicts the setup password requirement.
Q20. Refer to the exhibit. The router has been configured with a super net to accommodate the requirements for 380 users on a Subnet. The requirement already considers 30% future growth. Which configuration verifies the IP subnet on router R4?
Answer: D. D. Subnet: 10.7.54.0 Subnet mask: 255.255.254.0 Broadcast address: 10.7.55.255 Usable IP address range: 10.7.54.1 to 10.7.55.254
A subnet supporting at least 380 hosts requires 10 host bits, which corresponds to a prefix length of 22. Applying the 255.255.254.0 mask to the base address creates a usable host range from 10.7.54.1 through 10.7.55.254, instantly eliminating the smaller options.
More CCNA 2026 drills and other practice exams are on @CertPunch. New rounds drop every few days at certpunch.com.