Practice for the CCNA exam with 23 exam-style practice questions, instant answer reveals, and concise explanations of every correct answer. Topics include: Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is asked to design a small network with redundancy. The exhibit represents th. Follow @CertPunch and visit certpunch.com for more certification practice exams and study content.
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What you will practice
- Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is asked to design a small network with redundancy. The exhibit re…
- What is represented by the word "LB20" within this JSON schema?
- What is represented in line 2 within this JSON schema?
- Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator must permit SSH access to remotely manage routers in a network…
- Refer to the exhibit. Switch A is newly configured. All VLANs are present in the VLAN database. The IP phone…
- Refer to the exhibit. Which command set configures ROUTER-1 to allow Internet access for users on the 192.168…
Answers and explanations
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Q1. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is asked to design a small network with redundancy. The exhibit represents this design, with all hosts configured in the same VLAN. What conclusions can be made about this design?
Answer: C. C. The router will not accept the addressing scheme.
Cisco IOS prevents the configuration of overlapping IP subnets across multiple active routed interfaces. Assigning interfaces to the exact same subnet causes a routing conflict, meaning the router will reject the addressing scheme.
Q2. What is represented by the word "LB20" within this JSON schema?
Answer: A. A. value
In JSON syntax, a key-value pair assigns a specific value to a key, with the value appearing to the right of the colon. In the pair where load balancer is the key, the string LB20 represents the assigned value.
Q3. What is represented in line 2 within this JSON schema?
Answer: A. A. object
In JSON syntax, an object is defined by curly braces and consists of one or more key-value pairs. Line 2 is enclosed in curly braces, making it a distinct JSON object within the surrounding data structure.
Q4. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator must permit SSH access to remotely manage routers in a network. The operations team resides on the 10.20.1.0/25 network. Which command will accomplish this task?
Answer: C. C. access-list 2699 permit tcp 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.127 any eq 22
SSH operates over TCP port 22 and requires an extended access list for filtering. The operations team subnet must be matched using the correct wildcard mask of 0.0.0.127. The correct command permits this specific TCP traffic from the source network.
Q5. Refer to the exhibit. Switch A is newly configured. All VLANs are present in the VLAN database. The IP phone and PC A on Gi0/1 must be configured for the appropriate VLANs to establish connectivity between the PCs. Which command set fulfil…
Answer: A. A. SwitchA(config-if)#switchport mode access SwitchA(config-if)#switchport access vlan 50 SwitchA(config-if)#switchport voice vlan 51
A standard voice VLAN design uses an access port for the data VLAN and a separate voice VLAN for the phone. The other options incorrectly use trunk mode or untagged voice parameters, which do not fit the standard access-port phone configuration.
Q6. Refer to the exhibit. Which command set configures ROUTER-1 to allow Internet access for users on the 192.168.1.0/24 subnet while using 209.165.202.129 for Port Address Translation?
Answer: D. D. ip nat pool CCNA 209.165.202.129 209.165.202.129 netmask 255.255.255.255 access-list 10 permit 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 ip nat inside source list 10 pool CCNA overload
Port Address Translation requires defining a NAT pool with a single public IP address and an ACL using the correct wildcard mask to match the inside subnet. The overload keyword enables PAT, allowing multiple hosts to share the public IP.
Q7. Refer to the exhibit. Which plan must be implemented to ensure optimal QoS marking practices on this network?
Answer: A. A. Trust the IP phone markings on SW1 and mark traffic entering SW2 at SW2
Quality of Service best practices place the trust boundary as close to the edge as possible. IP phones are trusted for voice traffic, but untrusted PC traffic must be marked by the access switch to prevent malicious or incorrect prioritization.
Q8. Refer to the exhibit. R1 has taken the DROTHER role in the OSPF DR/BDR election process. Which configuration makes R1 the preferred DR candidate for the next OSPF DR/BDR election?
Answer: D. D. R1(config)#interface FastEthernet 0/0 R1(config-if)#ip ospf priority 200 R1#clear ip ospf process
OSPF designated router election on a broadcast network is determined first by interface priority, then router ID. Setting the priority to 200 makes R1 the highest priority on the segment, but clearing the process is required to trigger the next election.
Q9. Refer to the exhibit. Which action is expected from SW1 when the untagged frame is received on the GigabitEthernet0/1 interface?
Answer: C. C. The frame is processed in VLAN 5
In 802.1Q trunking, untagged frames received on a trunk port are assigned to the native VLAN. Since the native VLAN is configured as 5, the switch processes and forwards the frame using the VLAN 5 MAC address table.
Q10. Refer to the exhibit. The default-information originate command is configured under the R1 OSPF configuration. After testing, workstations on VLAN 20 at Site B cannot reach a DNS server on the Internet. Which action corrects the configurat…
Answer: C. C. Configure the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.10.18 command on R1.
The default-information originate command requires a default route to exist in the routing table before advertising it into OSPF. Adding a static default route on R1 provides the necessary path to the Internet and injects it into the routing domain.
Q11. Refer to the exhibit. After the configuration is applied, the two routers fail to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship. What is the reason for the problem?
Answer: C. C. Router2 is using the default hello timer
OSPF neighbors must have matching hello and dead timers on a link to form an adjacency. If Router1 sets a custom hello interval while Router2 uses the default, the mismatched timers prevent the neighbor relationship from establishing.
Q12. Refer to the exhibit. Rapid PVST+ mode is on the same VLAN on each switch. Which switch becomes the root bridge and why?
Answer: A. A. SW4, because its priority is lowest
In Rapid PVST+, the root bridge is elected based on the lowest bridge ID, which compares priority first and uses the MAC address as a tiebreaker. SW4 has the lowest priority, making it the root. Higher priorities or MAC addresses are ignored when a lower priority exists.
Q13. What is represented by the word "IDS" within this JSON schema?
Answer: D. D. key
In a JSON key-value pair, the word appearing to the left of the colon is the key, and the data on the right is the value. The structure acts as a dictionary object. Arrays and standalone values do not use this mapping syntax.
Q14. Refer to the exhibit. A packet sourced from 172.18.33.2 is destined for 172.18.32.38. Where does the router forward the packet?
Answer: D. D. GigabitEthernet0/0
Routers use the longest-prefix match rule to select the most specific route in the table. The destination falls within the directly connected /30 subnet on GigabitEthernet0/0. Less specific routes like /26 or /24 are ignored when a longer match exists.
Q15. Refer to the exhibit. What is the prefix length for the route that Router1 will use to reach host A?
Answer: C. C. /28
Routers forward packets using the longest-prefix match in the routing table. The destination address falls within the /28 subnet range, making it the most specific route. Less specific prefixes like /25 or /27 are ignored if a longer match is available.
Q16. Refer to the exhibit. The administrator must configure a floating static default route that points to 2001:db8:1234:2::1 and replaces the current default route only if it fails. Which command must the engineer configure on the CPE?
Answer: A. A. ipv6 route ::/0 2001:db8:1234:2::1 3
A floating static route must have a higher administrative distance than the primary route to act as a backup. Setting the administrative distance to three ensures the route remains inactive until the primary default route fails. Prefixes like ::/128 do not match all IPv6 traffic.
Q17. Refer to the exhibit. Router R2 learns multiple routes to reach network 10.1.1.0/24 from router R1 (static, eBGP, OSPF, and EIGRP). Which path is chosen by router R2 to reach the destination network 10.1.1.0/24?
Answer: A. A. static
Routers select the route with the lowest administrative distance when learning the same prefix from multiple sources. The default administrative distance of one makes the static route the clear winner, effectively eliminating the dynamic protocol options.
Q18. Refer to the exhibit. What is occurring on this switch?
Answer: A. A. Frames are dropped after 16 failed transmission attempts
Ethernet networks drop frames after sixteen consecutive collisions, which are recorded as excessive collision errors. This behavior occurs in half-duplex environments using collision detection, ruling out buffer overflows and standard frame size counters.
Q19. Refer to the exhibit. A packet that is sourced from 172.16.3.254 is destined for the IP address of GigabitEthernet0/0/0. What is the subnet mask of the destination route?
Answer: D. D. 255.255.255.255
A local route for an interface Internet Protocol address is always configured as a slash thirty-two host route. The corresponding subnet mask of two hundred fifty-five precisely matches the host destination, overriding broader network route options.
Q20. Refer to the exhibit. The ntp server 192.168.0.3 command has been configured on router 1 to make it an NTP client of router 2. Which command must be configured on router 2 so that it operates in server-only mode and relies only on its inte…
Answer: D. D. Router2(config)#ntp master 4
Configuring a router as an Network Time Protocol master forces it to synchronize clients using its own internal clock. This command designates a server-only hierarchy, eliminating the need to point to external time servers.
Q21. Refer to the exhibit. PC1 tries to ping PC3 for the first time and sends out an ARP to S1. Which action is taken by S1?
Answer: A. A. It is flooded out every port except G0/0.
A switch floods broadcast frames like Address Resolution Protocol requests out all active ports in the same virtual local area network except the receiving port. This basic Layer Two forwarding behavior eliminates options suggesting targeted forwarding or dropping the frame.
Q22. Refer to the exhibit. Which interface is chosen to forward traffic to the host at 192.168.0.55?
Answer: C. C. GigabitEthernet0/1
Routing tables use the longest prefix match rule to select the most specific route for a destination. The slash twenty-four route provides a longer match than slash sixteen or twenty-three options, directing traffic out the associated interface.
Q23. Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is configuring a Layer 3 port-channel interface with LACP. The configuration on the first device is complete, and it is verified that both interfaces have registered the neighbor device in the CDP table. W…
Answer: D. D. Configure the neighboring interfaces for LACP passive mode.
Link Aggregation Control Protocol requires at least one side to be active to initiate negotiation and form an EtherChannel. Configuring the neighbor in passive mode ensures it responds without initiating, satisfying the requirement and eliminating static modes.
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