Practice for the CCNA exam with 22 exam-style practice questions, instant answer reveals, and concise explanations of every correct answer. Topics include: Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must configure a floating static route on an external EIGRP network. The destination s. Follow @CertPunch and visit certpunch.com for more certification practice exams and study content.
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What you will practice
- Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must configure a floating static route on an external EIGRP network. The de…
- Refer to the exhibit. Packets received by the router from BGP enter via a serial interface at 209.165.201.1…
- Refer to the exhibit. What does router R1 use as its OSPF router-ID?
- Refer to the exhibit. An administrator must connect SW_1 and the printer to the network. SW_2 requires DTP to…
- Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer must configure the link with these requirements: Consume as few IP a…
- Refer to the exhibit. C-router is to be used as a router-on-a-stick to route between the VLANs. All the inter…
Answers and explanations
Tap a question to expand the answer and the exam reasoning. Try to commit to your own pick first.
Q1. Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must configure a floating static route on an external EIGRP network. The destination subnet is the /29 on the LAN interface of R86. Which command must be executed on R14?
Answer: C. C. ip route 10.80.65.0 255.255.255.248 10.73.65.66 171
Floating static routes require an administrative distance higher than the dynamic routing protocol. Setting the distance to 171 ensures the route only appears when the primary external path fails.
Q2. Refer to the exhibit. Packets received by the router from BGP enter via a serial interface at 209.165.201.1. Each route is present within the routing table. Which interface is used to forward traffic with a destination IP of 10.1.1.19?
Answer: A. A. F0/0
Routers always select the longest prefix match when making forwarding decisions. The destination maps to a specific subnet, forcing the router to select the associated interface regardless of administrative distance.
Q3. Refer to the exhibit. What does router R1 use as its OSPF router-ID?
Answer: C. C. 172.16.15.10
The router selects the highest IP address on a loopback interface when the ID is not manually set. Because the highest loopback address takes priority, it becomes the OSPF router ID automatically.
Q4. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator must connect SW_1 and the printer to the network. SW_2 requires DTP to be used for the connection to SW_1. The printer is configured as an access port with VLAN 5. Which set of commands completes the…
Answer: C. C. switchport mode dynamic desirable switchport trunk allowed vlan add 5
Configuring switchport mode dynamic desirable causes the switch to actively initiate DTP negotiation. Since SW_2 is dynamic auto, the combination forms a trunk. The command switchport trunk allowed vlan add 5 ensures VLAN 5 is permitted across the link.
Q5. Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer must configure the link with these requirements: Consume as few IP addresses as possible. Leave at least two additional useable IP addresses for future growth. Which set of configurations must be ap…
Answer: C. C. R1(config-if)#ip address 10.10.10.1 255.255.255.248 R2(config-if)#ip address 10.10.10.4 255.255.255.248
A slash 29 mask provides exactly six usable host addresses. After assigning two addresses to the routers, four usable addresses remain, meeting the future growth requirement while conserving IP space.
Q6. Refer to the exhibit. C-router is to be used as a router-on-a-stick to route between the VLANs. All the interfaces have been properly configured and IP routing is operational. The hosts in the VLANs have been configured with the appropriat…
Answer: D. D. No further routing configuration is required.
A router automatically routes between directly connected networks. Because the prompt confirms all subinterfaces are configured and IP routing is operational, no dynamic routing protocol is required for local intervlan routing.
Q7. Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is updating the configuration on router R1 to connect a new branch office to the company network. R2 has been configured correctly. Which command must the engineer configure so that devices at the n…
Answer: B. B. ip route 172.25.25.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.2
R1 needs a static route to the remote LAN that points to the next hop address. The next hop is R2's transit interface IP address, allowing traffic to successfully traverse the link between the two sites.
Q8. Refer to the exhibit. After you apply the given configuration to a router, the DHCP clients behind the device cannot communicate with hosts outside of their subnet. Which action is most likely to correct the problem?
Answer: D. D. Configure the default gateway
The DHCP pool lacks a default router command. Without a configured default gateway, clients cannot send traffic to remote networks. Adding the router interface IP as the default router resolves this issue.
Q9. Refer to the exhibit. What is the metric for the route to the 192.168.10.33 host?
Answer: D. D. 193
Host 192.168.10.33 falls within the 192.168.10.32 slash 28 subnet. In a Cisco routing table entry, the second number inside the brackets represents the metric, making 193 the correct value.
Q10. Refer to the exhibit. An access-list is required to permit traffic from any host on interface Gi0/0 and deny traffic from interface Gi0/1. Which access list must be applied?
Answer: A. access-list 99 deny 192.168.0.0 0.0.255.255
A standard access control list uses wildcard masks to filter traffic. The correct wildcard for a 16-bit subnet mask is 0.0.255.255, and list 99 properly scopes this rule.
Q11. Refer to the exhibit. How many JSON objects, keys, and total list values are present in the structure?
Answer: D. D. One object, three keys, and six JSON list values
A JSON structure is defined by its curly braces containing key-value pairs. The other options misinterpret the hierarchy by miscounting the nested arrays or treating individual lists as standalone objects.
Q12. What is represented by the word "ge3/36" within this JSON schema?
Answer: A. A. value
In JSON syntax, data assigned to a key is called the value. Because the word appears to the right of the colon inside quotation marks, it represents the assigned value rather than the key itself.
Q13. Refer to the exhibit. The link between PC1 and the switch is up, but it is performing poorly. Which interface condition is causing the performance problem?
Answer: B. B. There is a duplex mismatch on the interface.
A duplex mismatch causes poor performance while keeping the link up. When one side is manually configured for speed and duplex and the other auto-negotiates, the auto side defaults to half duplex, creating collisions and CRC errors that degrade throughput.
Q14. Refer to the exhibit. A packet sourced from 10.10.10.32 is destined for the Internet. What is the administrative distance for the destination route?
Answer: B. B. 1
Traffic destined for the Internet matches the default route. The bracketed values in a routing table entry represent administrative distance and metric, where the first number indicates the route source's trustworthiness.
Q15. What is represented by the word "LB13" within this JSON schema?
Answer: B. B. value
In JSON, the text appearing to the right of the colon is the value assigned to the key. The key appears to the left, defining the attribute name for the associated data.
Q16. Refer to the exhibit. SW1 MAC address table: VLAN | MAC Address | Port 50 | AAAA.AAAA.AA01 | Fa0/1 (Br-1) 50 | AAAA.AAAA.AA02 | Fa0/3 (Br-2) 50 | AAAA.AAAA.AA03 | Fa0/4 (Br-3) Br-4 is connected to Fa0/2 and sends a frame destined for Br-2…
Answer: C. C. It learns Br-4's source MAC address on Fa0/2 and forwards the frame only out Fa0/3 toward Br-2.
A switch first learns the source MAC address of an incoming frame on the receiving port. Because the destination MAC is already in the MAC address table, the switch forwards the frame directly out the known port instead of flooding it.
Q17. Refer to the exhibit. What is a reason for poor performance on the network interface?
Answer: C. C. The cable connection between the two devices is faulty.
High CRC and input errors indicate a physical layer problem like faulty cabling or interference. Speed mismatches typically result in a downed interface state, whereas a defective cable allows connectivity with severely degraded performance.
Q18. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator must turn off the Cisco Discovery Protocol on the port configured with the last usable address in the 10.0.0.252/30 subnet. Which command set meets the requirement?
Answer: A. A. interface gi0/1 no cdp enable
The last usable address in a slash thirty subnet is assigned to the specific interface requiring modification. To disable Cisco Discovery Protocol on a single port, use the no cdp enable command under that interface configuration.
Q19. Which interface condition is occurring in this output?
Answer: B. B. queueing
Interface counters showing a high number of packets in the input and output queues alongside output drops indicate that traffic is exceeding the forwarding capacity. This classic queueing condition occurs when congestion forces packets to be buffered or dropped.
Q20. Refer to the exhibit. PC1 regularly sends 1800 Mbps of traffic to the server. A network engineer needs to configure the EtherChannel to disable Port Channel 4 between SW1 and SW2 when the Ge0/0 and Ge0/1 ports on SW2 go down. Which configu…
Answer: A. A. SW2# configure terminal – SW2(config)# interface port-channel 4 SW2(config-if)# port-channel min-links 2
The port-channel min-links command specifies the minimum number of active interfaces required to keep an EtherChannel operational. If active links drop below this threshold, the switch automatically disables the port-channel interface to prevent traffic loss.
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