Practice for the CCNA exam with 23 exam-style practice questions, instant answer reveals, and concise explanations of every correct answer. Topics include: Refer to the exhibit. The LACP EtherChannel is configured, and the last change is to modify the interfaces on SwitchA to. Follow @CertPunch and visit certpunch.com for more certification practice exams and study content.
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What you will practice
- Refer to the exhibit. The LACP EtherChannel is configured, and the last change is to modify the interfaces on…
- Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer started to configure two directly-connected routers as shown. Which…
- Refer to the exhibit. An engineer booted a new switch and applied this configuration via the console port. Wh…
- Refer to the exhibit. Which address will the client contact to renew their IP address when the current lease…
- Refer to the exhibit. Which route does R1 select for traffic that is destined to 192.168.16.2?
- Refer to the exhibit. User traffic originating within site B is failing to reach an application hosted on IP…
Answers and explanations
Tap a question to expand the answer and the exam reasoning. Try to commit to your own pick first.
Q1. Refer to the exhibit. The LACP EtherChannel is configured, and the last change is to modify the interfaces on SwitchA to respond to packets received, but not to initiate negotiation. The interface range gigabitethernet0/0/0-15 command is e…
Answer: D. D. SwitchA(config-if-range)#channel-group 1 mode passive
LACP passive mode places an interface in a listening state where it responds to incoming LACP packets but does not initiate negotiation. This directly satisfies the requirement to respond without actively starting the negotiation process.
Q2. Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer started to configure two directly-connected routers as shown. Which command sequence must the engineer configure on R2 so that the two routers become OSPF neighbors? Correct answer
Answer: A. A. interface GigabitEthernet0/1 ip ospf 1 area 1
OSPF neighbor adjacencies require both routers to share the same subnet and area configuration. Applying the ip ospf 1 area 1 command directly on the interface ensures it matches the neighboring router parameters for successful adjacency formation.
Q3. Refer to the exhibit. An engineer booted a new switch and applied this configuration via the console port. Which additional configuration must be applied to allow administrators to authenticate directly to global configuration mode via Tel…
Answer: B. B. R1(config)#username admin privilege 15 secret p@ss1234 R1(config-if)#line vty 0 4 – R1(config-line)#login local
Assigning privilege level 15 to a local user grants immediate access to privileged EXEC and global configuration modes upon login. Using the login local command under the VTY lines enforces local authentication, making standard line passwords unnecessary.
Q4. Refer to the exhibit. Which address will the client contact to renew their IP address when the current lease expires?
Answer: C. C. 192.168.25.100
A DHCP client unicasts its renewal request directly to the DHCP server that originally granted the lease. The server IP address is explicitly listed in the client output, eliminating the need to contact the default gateway or broadcast address.
Q5. Refer to the exhibit. Which route does R1 select for traffic that is destined to 192.168.16.2?
Answer: D. D. 192.168.16.0/27
Cisco routers use the longest prefix match rule to select the most specific route in the routing table. The /27 route provides the most granular match for the destination IP, overriding the broader /21, /24, and /26 options.
Q6. Refer to the exhibit. User traffic originating within site B is failing to reach an application hosted on IP address 192.168.0.10, which is located within site A. What is determined by the routing table?
Answer: B. B. The lack of a default route prevents delivery of the traffic.
A router requires either a specific route or a default route to forward packets to unknown destinations. Because the routing table lacks an entry for the destination network and has no gateway of last resort, the traffic is dropped.
Q7. Refer to the exhibit. If OSPF is running on this network, how does Router2 handle traffic from Site B to 10.10.13.128/25 at Site A?
Answer: D. D. It cannot send packets to 10.10.13.128/25.
Routers forward packets based on the longest prefix match in the routing table. Because Router Two lacks a route and has no gateway of last resort, it cannot send packets to the destination.
Q8. Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is configuring the HO router. Which IPv6 address configuration must be applied to the router fa0/1 interface for the router to assign a unique 64-bit IPv6 address to itself?
Answer: B. B. ipv6 address 2001:DB8:0:1:C401:42FF:FE0F:7/64
The modified EUI 64 process inserts FFFE into the middle of the MAC address and flips the seventh bit. Flipping the bit changes the first byte from C6 to C4, which makes the second option correct.
Q9. Refer to the exhibit. When running EIGRP, what is required for RouterA to exchange routing updates with RouterC?
Answer: A. A. AS numbers must be changed to match on all the routers
Autonomous system numbers must match for routers to form adjacencies. Loopback interfaces are not required to form neighbor relationships, so they can be eliminated as a solution.
Q10. Refer to the exhibit. SW1 is configured as the primary root for VLAN 10 and SW2 is configured as the secondary root. Which switch becomes root if the primary switch fails and all links are of equal speed?
Answer: B. B. SW2
Spanning Tree selects the bridge with the lowest bridge ID as the root. Because switch two is configured as the secondary root, it has the next lowest bridge ID and takes over when switch one fails.
Q11. Refer to the exhibit. How should the configuration be updated to allow PC1 and PC2 access to the Internet?
Answer: D. D. Configure ip nat inside on GigabitEthernet0/0 and ip nat outside on GigabitEthernet0/1
Network Address Translation requires explicitly defining inside and outside interfaces. Without these commands, translation fails even if the ACL and NAT rules are correct.
Q12. Refer to the exhibit. What is the result if Gig1/11 receives an STP BPDU?
Answer: C. C. The port goes into error-disable state.
BPDU Guard places an access port into error disabled state upon receiving a bridge protocol data unit. This protects against accidental connections to switches that could create loops.
Q13. What is represented beginning with line 1 and ending with line 5 within this JSON schema?
Answer: C. C. array
Square brackets in JSON define an array, which can hold multiple elements. Curly braces define objects, whereas keys and values represent the data pairs within those structures.
Q14. Refer to the exhibit. An engineer assumes a configuration task from a peer. Router A must establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with neighbor 172.1.1.1. The output displays the status of the adjacency after 2 hours. What is the next step…
Answer: A. A. Configure router A to use the same MTU size as router B.
Open Shortest Path First adjacencies stuck in the exchange state commonly indicate a maximum transmission unit mismatch between neighbors. Routers reject database description packets larger than their local interface configuration, so aligning the maximum transmission unit size resolves the stall.
Q15. Refer to the exhibit. A packet sourced from 10.10.10.1 is destined for 10.10.8.14. What is the subnet mask of the destination route?
Answer: B. B. 255.255.255.240
The subnet mask is determined by the prefix length displayed in the routing table. The destination IP address falls within the directly connected twenty-eight bit network, which translates exactly to a subnet mask of 255.255.255.240.
Q16. Refer to the exhibit. Which command do you enter so that R1 advertises the loopback0 interface to the BGP peers?
Answer: A. A. Network 172.16.1.32 mask 255.255.255.224
Border Gateway Protocol requires an exact prefix and subnet mask match for the network command to advertise a route. The interface belongs to the subnet 172.16.1.32, meaning the command must use that exact network address along with the matching 255.255.255.224 mask.
Q17. Refer to the exhibit. Given the output for this command, if the router ID has not been manually set, what router ID will OSPF use for this router?
Answer: C. C. 172.16.5.1
Open Shortest Path First prefers the highest IP address on a loopback interface when choosing its router identifier. Comparing the available loopback addresses, 172.16.5.1 is higher than 10.154.154.1, making it the selected identifier.
Q18. Refer to the exhibit. Which command would you use to configure a static route on Router1 to network 192.168.202.0/24 with a nondefault administrative distance?
Answer: B. B. router1(config)#ip route 192.168.202.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2 5
The correct IOS syntax for a static route with a modified administrative distance is ip route <network> <mask> <next-hop> <distance>. Option B correctly defines the destination network, mask, next-hop address, and sets a nondefault administrative distance of five.
Q19. Refer to the exhibit. What is the metric of the route to the 192.168.10.33/28 subnet?
Answer: E. E. 193
In a Cisco routing table entry, the first number inside the brackets is the administrative distance, and the second number is the routing metric. The IP address belongs to the thirty-two subnet, which shows a metric of one hundred ninety-three.
Q20. Refer to the exhibit. What does the host do when using the IPv4 Preferred function?
Answer: B. B. It indicates the IPv4 address is valid and currently in use by the host.
The preferred state indicates that an IPv4 address is valid, verified, and actively used for communication. It confirms the address lease is still valid, but it does not force the DHCP server to assign the exact same address during future renewals.
Q21. Refer to the exhibit. R1 learns all routes via OSPF. Which command configures a backup static route on R1 to reach the 192.168.20.0/24 network via R3?
Answer: A. A. R1(config)#ip route 192.168.20.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.30.2 111
A floating static route must have a higher administrative distance than the primary dynamic routing protocol. OSPF defaults to administrative distance 110, so setting the static route to 111 ensures it only appears when the OSPF route fails.
Q22. Refer to the exhibit. VLAN 23 is being implemented between SW1 and SW2. The command show interface ethernet0/0 switchport has been issued on SW1. Ethernet0/0 on SW1 is the uplink to SW2. Which command when entered on the uplink interface a…
Answer: C. C. switchport trunk allowed vian add 23
The add keyword appends a specific VLAN to the existing allowed list rather than replacing it. Without add, the command overwrites the list and drops traffic for other active VLANs, causing an outage.
Q23. Refer to the exhibit. Which command must be issued to enable a floating static default route on router A?
Answer: A. A. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.2 10
A floating static route requires a higher administrative distance than the primary route to stay inactive until a failure occurs. The primary default route has an administrative distance of 1, so setting the backup to 10 ensures it only activates during an outage.
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