CCNA 200-301 and Answers Practice Test – 131 Free Exam Questions with Answers

CCNA 200-301 and Answers

131 questions · instant answer feedback · concise explanations · free

  1. Question 1 of 131Which OSI layer does RSTP utilize to avoid network loops?

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    Correct answer: A. Data Link

    RSTP operates at the Data Link layer using BPDUs to prevent loops. The trap is confusing it with network-layer routing protocols.

  2. Question 2 of 131At which OSI layer does PPP operate?

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    Correct answer: B. Layer 2

    PPP operates at Layer 2 to encapsulate datagrams over point-to-point links. Other layers handle different network functions.

  3. Question 3 of 131Which statement about named ACLs is accurate?

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    Correct answer: E. They handle both standard and extended ACLs

    Named ACLs support both standard and extended filtering. They do not filter Layer 7 traffic or rate-limit networks.

  4. Question 4 of 131What does PortFast do?

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    Correct answer: D. Allows instant data transfer without spanning tree delays

    PortFast bypasses spanning tree delays for ports connected to end devices. Other options describe BPDU Guard or filtering.

  5. Question 5 of 131What authentication method does SNMPv2 use?

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    Correct answer: C. Community strings

    SNMPv2 uses community strings for authentication. SNMPv3 introduces stronger security like HMAC-SHA and CBC-DES.

  6. Question 6 of 131When subnetting a Class B address with 255.255.255.0, how many subnets and hosts per subnet are available? (Select two)

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    Correct answer: E. Subnets: 256 · F. Hosts: 254

    A Class B subnet mask of 255.255.255.0 creates 256 subnets and 254 hosts per subnet. Other options provide incorrect calculations.

  7. Question 7 of 131What's the port number for SSH?

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    Correct answer: B. 22

    B is correct; SSH uses port 22. Other options are for email, FTP, HTTP, and Telnet.

  8. Question 8 of 131Which two statements correctly outline a router's role? (Pick two)

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    Correct answer: B. Discovers distinct networks · C. Chooses packet forwarding paths

    Routers discover networks and choose forwarding paths, dividing broadcast domains. The first option is incorrect.

  9. Question 9 of 131What are the first 24 bits of a MAC address known as?

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    Correct answer: D. OUI

    The first 24 bits of a MAC address are the OUI, identifying the vendor. NIC refers to the hardware itself.

  10. Question 10 of 131What advantages does Netflow provide? (Pick three)

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    Correct answer: A. Accounting and billing · B. Security analysis · D. Network, app, and user monitoring

    Netflow provides accounting, security analysis, and network monitoring. Network planning is not a primary Netflow advantage.

  11. Question 11 of 131On a corporate network, same-VLAN hosts connect, but cross-VLAN communication fails. What's needed?

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    Correct answer: A. Router with subinterfaces on the switch-connected interface

    Inter-VLAN routing requires a Layer 3 device with subinterfaces to route traffic between VLANs. Option D is a common trap as it lacks subinterfaces.

  12. Question 12 of 131Which three describe Dynamic ARP Inspection (DAI) accurately? (Pick three)

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    Correct answer: B. Verifies IP-MAC correspondence · D. Prevents ARP spoofing · F. Uses DHCP Snooping Binding Database

    DAI verifies IP-MAC correspondence to prevent ARP spoofing using DHCP Snooping bindings. Option A is incorrect as DAI doesn't examine MAC from IPv4.

  13. Question 13 of 131Which command enables PortFast on all access ports at once, skipping blocking to forwarding instantly?

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    Correct answer: A. (Config) # spanning-tree portfast default

    The 'spanning-tree portfast default' command enables PortFast globally on all access ports. Option B is incorrect as PortFast doesn't apply to trunks.

  14. Question 14 of 131If RIP (Hop Count 1), OSPF (Cost 66), and EIGRP (Metric 2174976) learn the same route, which is chosen?

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    Correct answer: B. EIGRP-learned route

    EIGRP wins due to its lowest Administrative Distance (90). Metrics only matter within the same routing protocol.

  15. Question 15 of 131Which NAT type maps one inside address to one outside address?

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    Correct answer: C. Static NAT

    Static NAT provides a one-to-one mapping of an inside address to an outside address.

  16. Question 16 of 131Given a NIC MAC of CC-3F-18-F0-67-CA, which binary represents its OUI?

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    Correct answer: A. 11001100-00111111-00011000

    The OUI is the first 24 bits of the MAC, CC-3F-18, converting correctly to binary.

  17. Question 17 of 131Which global command on a Cisco router lets you see connected Cisco devices?

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    Correct answer: D. cdp run

    The global command 'cdp run' enables CDP to discover Cisco devices on the network.

  18. Question 18 of 131Which router boot step locates an IOS image?

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    Correct answer: C. Bootstrap

    The bootstrap program locates the IOS image during router boot. Option B is wrong; Mini-IOS is a fallback, not the main step.

  19. Question 19 of 131See the exhibit. Which address range best summarizes Main router's routing table?

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    Correct answer: C. 172.16.0.0/20

    172.16.0.0/20 covers all subnets efficiently. Option A is too broad; option D is too narrow for the exhibit.

  20. Question 20 of 131Which process establishes a virtual TCP path while ensuring reliability?

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    Correct answer: B. 3-way handshake

    TCP's 3-way handshake establishes a reliable connection before data transfer. Option C is part of it, not the full process.

  21. Question 21 of 131Which two describe DNS accurately? (Pick two)

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    Correct answer: A. One domain can have multiple IPs · C. Multiple domains can share one IP

    DNS supports one-to-many domains to IPs for load balancing and many-to-one for hosting multiple services.

  22. Question 22 of 131In 'IP NAT INSIDE SOURCE LIST 1 POOL ABC OVERLOAD', what does 'overload' signify?

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    Correct answer: E. Maps multiple hosts to one global address

    'Overload' enables PAT, mapping multiple internal hosts to one public IP using port numbers.

  23. Question 23 of 131Which is true about ENABLE PASSWORD vs. ENABLE SECRET?

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    Correct answer: F. 'Enable Secret' uses MD5 encryption

    'Enable Secret' uses MD5 encryption and overrides 'Enable Password' if both are configured.

  24. Question 24 of 131Which feature, when active, stops routing protocols from sending hello messages on an interface?

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    Correct answer: B. Passive-interface

    Passive-interface blocks routing protocol hellos and updates on an interface.

  25. Question 25 of 131For network 206.140.3.0 with mask 255.255.255.224, what's the correct notation?

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    Correct answer: B. 206.140.3.0/27

    255.255.255.224 uses 27 bits, so the correct notation is 206.140.3.0/27.

  26. Question 26 of 131Which traits define PUPPET? (Pick three)

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    Correct answer: B. Operates as a PULL mechanism · F. Relies on manifests

    Puppet uses a PULL mechanism and relies on manifests. Chef uses Recipes and Cookbooks, while Ansible uses SSH and Netconf.

  27. Question 27 of 131How many severity levels of syslog messages are displayed on the console by default?

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    Correct answer: A. Seven levels

    By default, the console displays all seven syslog severity levels. Other options misstate the default configuration.

  28. Question 28 of 131How do you configure a Catalyst switch to permit Telnet access from devices on different networks? (Choose four)

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    Correct answer: B. Set a VTY password · C. Assign an IP address · D. Define a default gateway · E. Configure an enable password

    Telnet access requires a VTY password, IP address, default gateway, and enable password. Port security is not required.

  29. Question 29 of 131Which IEEE standard protocol supports EtherChannel formation?

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    Correct answer: D. LACP

    LACP is the IEEE standard for EtherChannel. PAGP is a Cisco-proprietary alternative, while OSPF and NTP are unrelated.

  30. Question 30 of 131What does the command '(Config) #errdisable Recovery INTERVAL 400' accomplish?

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    Correct answer: A. Adjusts the auto-recovery timer

    The command sets the auto-recovery timer to 400 seconds for err-disabled ports. Option C incorrectly specifies port security recovery.

  31. Question 31 of 131What happens when these commands are applied to a Cisco switch? 'Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security' and 'Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky'?

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    Correct answer: D. Dynamic MACs are retained in running-config

    Sticky MAC addresses are dynamically learned and saved to the running-config. Option B is wrong because they're not in startup-config.

  32. Question 32 of 131How does EIGRP for IPv4 differ from EIGRP for IPv6?

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    Correct answer: C. Only EIGRPv6 needs a router ID in the routing process

    EIGRPv6 requires a manually configured router ID if no IPv4 address exists. Option A is a trap because AS numbers are used in both versions.

  33. Question 33 of 131Which traits belong to Layer 3 switches? (Select two)

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    Correct answer: C. Can divide broadcast domains · D. Routes based on IP addresses

    Layer 3 switches divide broadcast domains and route IP traffic. Option A is a trap because Layer 3 switches support routing.

  34. Question 34 of 131Which command assigns a static IPv6 address to a router interface manually?

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    Correct answer: A. ipv6 address 2001:db8:2222:7272::72/64

    The 'ipv6 address' command manually configures an IPv6 address. Option C is a trap because 'autoconfig' is for stateless address autoconfiguration.

  35. Question 35 of 131Which three statements reflect typical VLAN setup traits? (Pick three)

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    Correct answer: B. Each VLAN has its own address space · D. Inter-VLAN connectivity needs a Layer 3 device · E. Switches keep a unique bridging table per VLAN

    VLANs have separate address spaces and require Layer 3 devices for inter-VLAN communication. Option A is a trap because switches default to VLAN 1.

  36. Question 36 of 131In what two ways can the IPv6 address fd15:0db8:0000:0000:0700:0003:400F:572B be shortened? (Pick two)

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    Correct answer: B. fd15:db8::700:3:400F:572B · D. fd15:0db8:0000:0000:700:3:400F:527B

    Option B correctly removes leading zeros and compresses zeros with double colons. Option D also compresses but misses leading zero removal.

  37. Question 37 of 131Which address types are used in IPv6? (Select two)

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    Correct answer: D. Unicast · E. Multicast

    D and E are correct; IPv6 uses unicast and multicast, not broadcast. All cast and fast cast are invalid.

  38. Question 38 of 131Which IPv6 address is valid?

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    Correct answer: B. 2031:0:130F::9C0:876A:130B

    B is valid; it uses proper hex and single '::' compression. G/H and double '::' in D are invalid.

  39. Question 39 of 131What term describes supporting both IPv4 and IPv6?

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    Correct answer: E. Dual stack

    Dual stack supports both IPv4 and IPv6 simultaneously, making it the correct term. NAT and STP are unrelated technologies.

  40. Question 40 of 131Which protocol accesses the RESTful API of an SDN controller?

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    Correct answer: A. HTTPS

    HTTPS is used to access RESTful APIs in SDN controllers like Cisco DNA Center. OpenFlow is a Southbound protocol.

  41. Question 41 of 131When a host discards a damaged frame after checksum failure, which OSI layer is involved?

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    Correct answer: A. Data Link

    The Data Link layer handles frame checksums and discards damaged frames. Network layer deals with IP packets.

  42. Question 42 of 131Which three statements accurately depict Layer 2 Ethernet switches? (Pick three)

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    Correct answer: A. VLANs increase broadcast domains · B. In redundant networks, each segment has one root bridge with all ports forwarding · C. Microsegmentation cuts collision occurrences

    Microsegmentation creates individual collision domains per device, reducing collisions. VLANs increase broadcast domains, not decrease them.

  43. Question 43 of 131At the data link layer, what determines the destination?

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    Correct answer: A. MAC address

    The data link layer uses the MAC address to identify the destination device. IP addresses are Layer 3.

  44. Question 44 of 131Which three statements correctly describe RADIUS? (Pick three)

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    Correct answer: C. Is an industry-standard protocol · D. Operates with UDP · F. Supports accounting

    RADIUS uses UDP for transport and supports authentication, authorization, and accounting. It does not separate authentication from authorization.

  45. Question 45 of 131Which settings must match to bundle ports in EtherChannel? (Select three)

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    Correct answer: B. Trunking mode · D. Switch port type (access/trunk/Layer 3) · E. Speed and duplex settings

    Ports in an EtherChannel must have matching trunking mode, port type, and speed/duplex settings to form a bundle.

  46. Question 46 of 131How do you set a switch's hostname?

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    Correct answer: B. switch-mdf-c1(config)#hostname switch-mdf1

    The hostname is configured in global configuration mode. Option A incorrectly tries to set it in interface configuration mode.

  47. Question 47 of 131When multiple routes are in the routing table, what's prioritized for route selection?

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    Correct answer: B. Longest match

    Longest match is the first priority for route selection. Option C, administrative distance, is the second priority.

  48. Question 48 of 131Which IP addresses are usable on the 192.168.16.32/28 subnet? (Select three)

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    Correct answer: A. 192.168.16.44 · C. 192.168.16.33 · D. 192.168.16.45

    The /28 subnet has usable IPs from .33 to .46. Option B is the network address, and option E is the broadcast.

  49. Question 49 of 131What happens when a switch with all ports on VLAN 2 (full duplex FastEthernet) adds ports to a new VLAN?

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    Correct answer: D. A new broadcast domain emerges

    Each VLAN creates a new broadcast domain. Option C is incorrect as full duplex eliminates collisions.

  50. Question 50 of 131To view settings loaded on router restart, which command should you use?

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    Correct answer: C. show startup-config

    The startup-config is loaded on reboot. Option E shows the running-config, which is lost on power cycle unless saved.

  51. Question 51 of 131Which statement about native VLAN traffic is correct?

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    Correct answer: C. Native VLAN traffic is tagged with VLAN 1 by default

    Native VLAN traffic is untagged by default, not tagged with VLAN 1. CDP uses the native VLAN, but Option D is incorrect.

  52. Question 52 of 131See the exhibit. Replacing a hub with a switch (one Ethernet VLAN), what two outcomes occur? (Pick two)

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    Correct answer: A. Collision domains increase · F. Broadcast domains remain unchanged

    Replacing a hub with a switch increases collision domains per port but keeps broadcast domains the same. Options B and D are traps.

  53. Question 53 of 131See the exhibit. Router edge-1 can't form OSPF adjacency with ISP-1. Which two changes on edge-1 fix this? (Pick two)

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    Correct answer: B. Lower edge-1's MTU to 1500 · C. Run 'ip ospf mtu-ignore' on edge-1's Gi0/0

    OSPF adjacency fails due to MTU mismatch. Lowering MTU or using 'ip ospf mtu-ignore' bypasses the check.

  54. Question 54 of 131In WPA/WPA2 PSK authentication, which PSK formats are available? (Pick two)

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    Correct answer: A. ASCII · E. HEX

    WPA/WPA2 PSK supports ASCII and HEX formats. OCT, BIN, and DEC are not valid options.

  55. Question 55 of 131Which two statements about Telnet are true? (Pick two)

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    Correct answer: A. Requires pre-configuration on the target device · F. Sends data in plain text

    Telnet requires pre-configuration on the target device and sends data in plain text. Option B is a trap as SSH is independent of Telnet.

  56. Question 56 of 131Which destination ports must be allowed for VTY access control with an extended ACL? (Select two)

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    Correct answer: A. 23 (Telnet) · E. 22 (SSH)

    VTY access requires permitting SSH (22) and Telnet (23) in extended ACLs. Other ports like HTTP or TFTP are unrelated to VTY.

  57. Question 57 of 131Among network monitoring protocols, which offers the highest security?

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    Correct answer: D. SNMPv3

    SNMPv3 offers the highest security with authentication and encryption. SNMPv2C uses insecure community strings.

  58. Question 58 of 131Which feature creates a FIB and adjacency table for faster packet forwarding?

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    Correct answer: B. Cisco Express Forwarding

    Cisco Express Forwarding creates a FIB and adjacency table for faster packet forwarding compared to process switching.

  59. Question 59 of 131What's the role of spanning tree in a switched network? (Pick three)

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    Correct answer: C. Stops broadcast storms · D. Auto-switches routes on failure · E. Prevents switching loops

    STP prevents switching loops, which stops broadcast storms and allows for automatic failover.

  60. Question 60 of 131Which Cisco Catalyst feature disables a PortFast port upon BPDU receipt?

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    Correct answer: B. BPDU Guard

    BPDU Guard disables a PortFast port if it receives a BPDU to prevent loops from unauthorized devices.

  61. Question 61 of 131Which conditions can an extended IP access list specify? (Select four)

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    Correct answer: B. Port number · C. Protocol · D. Source IP address · E. Destination IP address

    Extended ACLs can filter by protocol, source IP, destination IP, and port number.

  62. Question 62 of 131Which two describe IaaS? (Pick two)

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    Correct answer: A. Lets you pick the OS · D. Allows CPU and memory selection

    IaaS allows OS and hardware choices like CPU and memory, unlike SaaS examples like Office 365.

  63. Question 63 of 131What threat self-replicates and spreads across a network?

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    Correct answer: B. Worm

    Worms self-replicate across networks, unlike viruses or Trojans which require user interaction.

  64. Question 64 of 131What does a standard IP access list filter?

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    Correct answer: E. Source IP address

    Standard IP ACLs filter only source IP, unlike extended ACLs which include ports and protocols.

  65. Question 65 of 131Which three describe CDP settings accurately? (Pick three)

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    Correct answer: A. CDP off globally prevents per-interface disabling · B. Disable CDP globally in config mode · D. Disable CDP per interface in interface config mode

    CDP is enabled by default globally; disabling it with 'cdp run' prevents per-interface changes. Option E is incorrect because global CDP enables per-interface disabling.

  66. Question 66 of 131If SwitchA's VLAN-assigned hosts can't reach same-VLAN hosts on SwitchB, what's likely wrong?

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    Correct answer: B. Switch link needs trunking

    Trunk ports are required between switches to carry multiple VLANs. Option A is wrong because access links carry only one VLAN.

  67. Question 67 of 131Why does a network admin get an error configuring 10.24.24.24/29 on a router's Ethernet interface?

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    Correct answer: B. It's a network address

    10.24.24.24/29 is the network address, unusable for hosts. Option A is wrong; 31 is the broadcast address.

  68. Question 68 of 131What's a key benefit of PVST+?

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    Correct answer: B. Optimizes root switch placement per VLAN

    PVST+ optimizes root placement per VLAN for better load balancing. Option C is wrong; root selection is manual or via STP priorities.

  69. Question 69 of 131Which command activates RSTP on a switch?

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    Correct answer: D. spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst

    The 'spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst' command enables RSTP on Cisco switches, which is the standard for loop prevention.

  70. Question 70 of 131Which file transfer protocol requires a connection?

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    Correct answer: E. FTP

    FTP uses TCP for connection-oriented transfers; the other options are connectionless or not file transfer.

  71. Question 71 of 131Which three describe RSTP correctly? (Pick three)

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    Correct answer: A. Converges faster than STP on failure · B. Adds alternate and backup port roles · F. Enables timer-free convergence on point-to-point links

    RSTP converges faster, adds alternate/backup ports, and achieves timer-free convergence on point-to-point links.

  72. Question 72 of 131Which router boot step finds the IOS image?

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    Correct answer: A. Bootstrap

    The bootstrap step finds the IOS image, while POST performs hardware checks.

  73. Question 73 of 131Which IPs can be assigned to hosts on 192.168.2.0/26? (Select three)

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    Correct answer: B. 192.168.2.40 · C. 192.168.2.15 · F. 192.168.2.32

    The valid host IPs range from 192.168.2.1 to 192.168.2.62 for /26 subnet.

  74. Question 74 of 131What two tasks does DHCP handle? (Pick two)

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    Correct answer: A. Sets IP parameters from server to host · B. Assigns and renews IPs from a pool

    DHCP assigns IP addresses and parameters like DNS and gateway to hosts.

  75. Question 75 of 131What's the state sequence for an OSPF router from start to convergence?

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    Correct answer: A. DOWN → INIT → 2WAY → EXSTART → Exchange → Loading → Full

    OSPF router state sequence starts with DOWN and progresses to Full via INIT, 2WAY, and Exchange.

  76. Question 76 of 131What's the most accurate PortFast description?

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    Correct answer: A. Shifts from blocking to forwarding instantly

    PortFast shifts a port directly from blocking to forwarding, skipping listening and learning states.

  77. Question 77 of 131Consider the diagram. When using OSPF, what might prevent Router A from establishing adjacency with Router B?

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    Correct answer: B. Dead timer values differ between the routers

    Dead timer mismatches prevent OSPF adjacency. Process IDs are locally significant and do not affect neighbor formation.

  78. Question 78 of 131How can you turn off DTP on a switch port?

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    Correct answer: A. Set the port as a trunk

    Configuring a port as a trunk disables DTP to prevent negotiation. Option C is a trap because static access mode alone doesn't disable DTP.

  79. Question 79 of 131Which two claims about wireless LAN controllers hold true? (Pick two)

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    Correct answer: A. They streamline wireless LAN management and rollout · D. They oversee mobility policies system-wide

    WLAN controllers streamline management and enforce mobility policies. Option B is a trap because CLI is also available for setup.

  80. Question 80 of 131To subnet three web servers on one network with maximum subnets, which address and mask fit best?

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    Correct answer: B. 192.168.252.8 255.255.255.248

    B fits three hosts with 248 mask. Cuses .0 but doesn’t specify host IP, while 252 only allows two hosts.

  81. Question 81 of 131A firm installs IP phones alongside office PCs on the same device. To maximize phone data throughput, separating phone and PC traffic is key. Which device and tech combo works best? (Pick two)

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    Correct answer: A. Switch · B. VLAN

    A and B are correct; switches use VLANs to separate traffic. Routers and subinterfaces are overkill here.

  82. Question 82 of 131When is a static route most suitable?

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    Correct answer: A. Linking an ISP router to a corporate network

    A static route is ideal for linking an ISP router to a corporate network as it's a simple, fixed path. Low administrative distance protocols are a distractor.

  83. Question 83 of 131For a network with 40 PCs sharing four global IPs, which NAT type ensures all can connect to the internet simultaneously?

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    Correct answer: D. Overload

    NAT Overload (PAT) allows multiple PCs to share four global IPs using port translation. Static NAT is 1:1 and insufficient.

  84. Question 84 of 131Which protocol advertises a virtual IP for seamless failover on Cisco routers?

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    Correct answer: A. FHRP

    FHRP provides virtual IP failover, with HSRP as a common Cisco implementation. DHCP is unrelated to redundancy.

  85. Question 85 of 131What's the best definition of MTU?

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    Correct answer: D. Maximum packet size sent in one go

    MTU is the largest packet size that can be sent in one transfer. Option A is too vague.

  86. Question 86 of 131Which two outputs from 'show interfaces' verify interface reliability? (Pick two)

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    Correct answer: B. 'Reliability' indicates interface trustworthiness · D. Most reliable is '255/255', least is '0/255'

    The 'Reliability' field shows trustworthiness; '255/255' is full reliability. 'TXLOAD' and 'RXLOAD' measure load, not reliability.

  87. Question 87 of 131How do you recover ports in ERR-DISABLED state due to port security violations?

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    Correct answer: C. Shut down then re-enable the interface with 'shutdown' and 'no shutdown'

    You must first shut down the port with 'shutdown', then re-enable it with 'no shutdown'.

  88. Question 88 of 131Which commands configure a static route to 10.5.6.0/24 on the HFD router? (Choose two)

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    Correct answer: A. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.6.0 255.255.255.0 10.5.4.6 · B. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.6.0 255.255.255.0 fa0/0

    The correct syntax is 'ip route {dest-net} {mask} {next-hop | exit-interface}'. Option C reverses the destination and next-hop.

  89. Question 89 of 131Which command allows SSH or Telnet access on a Cisco switch with configured VTY lines?

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    Correct answer: A. transport input all

    The 'transport input all' command allows both SSH and Telnet. Option B, 'output', is a distractor as the command is 'input'.

  90. Question 90 of 131In cloud services, what model offers infrastructure as a service?

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    Correct answer: A. IaaS

    IaaS provides virtualized hardware like servers. Option D, PaaS, is platforms, and option B, SaaS, is software.

  91. Question 91 of 131In Cisco's 3-tier model, which layer uses a star topology?

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    Correct answer: E. Access layer

    The access layer uses a star topology, connecting devices radially to a central switch. Core and distribution layers typically use partial mesh for redundancy.

  92. Question 92 of 131Which command displays general Netflow data on the CLI?

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    Correct answer: A. show ip cache flow

    show ip cache flow displays general Netflow data. Other options are for specific features like top-talkers or sampling.

  93. Question 93 of 131Which two describe ASCII PSK format correctly? (Pick two)

    Select 2 answers.

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    Correct answer: A. It's the default PSK format · D. Sets keys with 8-63 alphanumeric characters

    ASCII PSK is the default format with 8-63 alphanumeric characters. HEX uses 64 hex digits.

  94. Question 94 of 131What two methods protect network device configs from external threats? (Pick two)

    Select 2 answers.

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    Correct answer: A. Use a firewall to limit outside access · B. Employ SSH or encrypted transport for config access

    Firewalls and encrypted SSH protect configs. Open access or Telnet are insecure, so Options C, D, E are traps.

  95. Question 95 of 131What must be set on a Cisco switch for an IP phone to function?

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    Correct answer: A. Interface as access port with voice VLAN ID

    An IP phone needs a voice VLAN configured on the switch port to separate voice traffic. Option C is incorrect as it's only required on the interface.

  96. Question 96 of 131Which technologies enable stateless IPv6 address assignment? (Select all that apply)

    Select 2 answers.

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    Correct answer: A. Autoconfiguration · B. DHCPv6

    Autoconfiguration and DHCPv6 (stateless mode) enable stateless IPv6 address assignment. DHCP is for IPv4 only.

  97. Question 97 of 131When debugging an ACL issue on a router, which command shows affected interfaces?

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    Correct answer: A. show ip interface

    The 'show ip interface' command displays ACLs applied to interfaces, not the rules themselves.

  98. Question 98 of 131Which commands set an IPv6 static route? (Select three)

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    Correct answer: B. IPv6 Route 2001:DB8:1234:5678::/128 Serial0/0 FE80::1 · D. IPv6 Route 2001:DB8:1234:5678::/128 2001:DB8:9ABC::DEF · F. IPv6 Route 2001:DB8:1234:5678::/128 GigabitEthernet1/0/1

    The correct syntax is 'IPv6 Route' followed by the prefix, exit interface, and next hop.

  99. Question 99 of 131What command sequence creates VLAN 20 and assigns it to an interface?

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    Correct answer: A. Switch(config)#vlan 20\nSwitch(config)#Interface gig x/y\nSwitch(config-if)#switchport access vlan 20

    First create VLAN 20, then enter the interface and assign it with 'switchport access vlan 20'.

  100. Question 100 of 131Which wireless LAN standard uses both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz bands?

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    Correct answer: C. IEEE 802.11n

    802.11n operates on both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz bands, while earlier standards use single bands.

  101. Question 101 of 131What's true about access lists on an interface?

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    Correct answer: C. One ACL per direction per Layer 3 protocol

    One ACL per protocol per direction per interface is the correct rule, avoiding confusion about unlimited use.

  102. Question 102 of 131Which WLC QoS profile prioritizes voice traffic?

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    Correct answer: A. Platinum

    Platinum is the highest QoS profile for voice, ensuring priority over other traffic types.

  103. Question 103 of 131Which two enhancements does OSPFv3 offer over OSPFv2? (Pick two)

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    Correct answer: B. Routes over links, not networks · C. Handles multiple IPv6 subnets per link

    OSPFv3 routes per link, not subnet, and supports multiple IPv6 subnets per link. Option A is incorrect; OSPF doesn't limit instances per link.

  104. Question 104 of 131After manually adding an AP, comms speed and quality dropped. What might cause this? (Pick two)

    Select 2 answers.

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    Correct answer: A. Overlapping channel frequencies · E. Poor AP placement

    Overlapping channels cause interference, and poor AP placement reduces signal strength. Option B is irrelevant; authentication failure disconnects devices entirely.

  105. Question 105 of 131Which two describe access lists correctly? (Pick two)

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    Correct answer: B. New conditions append to the end · C. Extended ACLs filter by protocol

    Standard ACLs filter source IP; extended adds protocol. New rules append, with an implicit deny all at the end.

  106. Question 106 of 131For 2001:0db8:3333:4444:5555:6666:7777:8888/64 (from provider 2001:0db8:3333::/48), what's the subnet?

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    Correct answer: E. 4444

    In a /64 global unicast address, the first 48 bits are provider-assigned, and the next 16 bits form the subnet.

  107. Question 107 of 131Which IPs are Class A? (Select all that apply)

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    Correct answer: C. 124.192.168.5 · E. 10.255.255.170

    Class A ranges from 0.0.0.0 to 127.255.255.255; 172.x.x.x is Class B.

  108. Question 108 of 131What two statements are true about 'ip route 172.16.3.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.4'? (Pick two)

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    Correct answer: A. Creates a static route to 172.16.3.0 · B. Uses default administrative distance

    This command creates a static route to 172.16.3.0 using 192.168.2.4 with default AD.

  109. Question 109 of 131Which commands create VLAN 2 named 'Ping-t' and assign it to a port? (Select three)

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    Correct answer: A. (config)#interface FastEthernet 0/1\n(config-if)#switchport access vlan 2 · B. (config-vlan)#name Ping-t · F. (config)#vlan 2

    Commands include creating VLAN 2, naming it, and assigning it to an interface.

  110. Question 110 of 131Which two stats appear in 'show frame-relay map' output? (Pick two)

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    Correct answer: A. PVC status on the router · C. Local DLCI value

    Local DLCI and PVC status appear in 'show frame-relay map' output. BECN/FECN counts are not shown.

  111. Question 111 of 131Which STP feature shifts a port straight to forwarding?

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    Correct answer: A. PortFast

    PortFast bypasses STP delays, moving ports straight to forwarding for single-device connections.

  112. Question 112 of 131Which protocol might overload a managed device's CPU?

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    Correct answer: D. SNMP

    SNMP can overload CPU with high polling rates. Other options are performance tools but not CPU hogs.

  113. Question 113 of 131What Netflow component tracks IPv4 traffic when applied to an interface?

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    Correct answer: C. Flow monitor

    Flow monitor attaches to interfaces. Flow records define data, and exporters send it to collectors.

  114. Question 114 of 131Which Cisco platform can validate ACLs?

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    Correct answer: A. Cisco Wireless LAN Controller

    Cisco IOS-XE validates ACLs, unlike other platforms which may require external tools. The Wireless LAN Controller is a distractor.

  115. Question 115 of 131What advantage does switch stacking offer?

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    Correct answer: A. Increases port density with efficient resource use

    Switch stacking increases port density efficiently. Redundancy and performance are secondary benefits.

  116. Question 116 of 131Which interface counter helps spot a duplex mismatch?

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    Correct answer: E. Late collisions

    Late collisions indicate a duplex mismatch. Option C, CRC errors, can also suggest issues but are not specific to duplex.

  117. Question 117 of 131What's the purpose of POST on a router?

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    Correct answer: D. Checks for added hardware

    POST checks for added hardware. The config register and IOS image boot are handled later in the boot process.

  118. Question 118 of 131Which three are flow control types? (Pick three)

    Select 3 answers.

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    Correct answer: C. Windowing · D. Congestion avoidance · E. Buffering

    Windowing, congestion avoidance, and buffering are flow control types. Load balancing and cut-through are unrelated.

  119. Question 119 of 131Which IPs fall within the 115.64.4.0/22 CIDR block? (Pick three)

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    Correct answer: A. 115.64.7.64 · B. 115.64.6.255 · D. 115.64.5.128

    115.64.7.64, 115.64.6.255, and 115.64.5.128 fall within the /22 CIDR block range.

  120. Question 120 of 131What does 'resource sharing' mean in cloud computing?

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    Correct answer: B. Multiple users accessing resources

    Resource sharing means multiple users access pooled resources, a key cloud computing characteristic.

  121. Question 121 of 131See the exhibit. What commands enable Host 1 and Host 2 communication on the 2950 switch and router? (Pick two)

    Select 2 answers.

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    Correct answer: A. Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0\nRouter(config-if)# no shut down\nRouter(config)#interface fastethernet 0/0.1\nRouter(config-subif)#encapsulation dot1q 10\nRouter(config-subif)# ip address 192.168.10.1 255.255.255.0\nRouter(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0.2\nRouter(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 20\nRouter(config-subif)# ip address 192.168.20.1 255.255.255.0 · B. Switch1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1\nSwitch1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk

    Router subinterfaces with VLANs and a trunked switch link enable inter-VLAN communication.

  122. Question 122 of 131Four switches are set with hostnames and RSTP, with no further tweaks. Which three indicate correct RSTP port roles? (Pick three)

    Select 3 answers.

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    Correct answer: A. SwitchA, Fa0/2, designated · C. SwitchA, Fa0/1, root · D. SwitchD, Gi0/2, root

    RSTP port roles depend on topology and switch positions. The question lacks sufficient details to definitively select the correct options.

  123. Question 123 of 131Which command avoids altering the OSPF network type?

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    Correct answer: C. (CONFIG-IF) #IP OSPF NETWORK POINT-to-POINT

    C is correct as interface config mode is required. Trap: E uses 'Point-to-Point' which is invalid syntax.

  124. Question 124 of 131Which two statements about IPv4 multicast traffic are correct? (Pick two)

    Select 2 answers.

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    Correct answer: A. Most efficient for multi-receiver delivery · D. Delivers multiple streams at once

    Multicast is efficient for multi-receiver delivery but uses bandwidth proportional to streams.

  125. Question 125 of 131What does 'show snmp EngineId' confirm?

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    Correct answer: E. Manager IP address

    The command shows the SNMP manager's IP address, not the agent's details.

  126. Question 126 of 131How does this ACL affect traffic when applied outbound on E0 (192.169.1.8/29 LAN): 'access-list 135 deny tcp 192.169.1.8 0.0.0.7 eq 20 any' and 'access-list 135 deny tcp 192.169.1.8 0.0.0.7 eq 21 any'?

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    Correct answer: B. Blocks all traffic leaving E0

    B is correct; the ACL lacks a 'permit' statement, blocking all traffic. Trap: A misstates source IP range.

  127. Question 127 of 131Which switch does STP select as the root bridge?

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    Correct answer: A. 32768: 11-22-33-44-55-66

    The switch with the lowest Bridge ID (BID) becomes the root bridge. Option A is correct as it has a lower BID than the others.

  128. Question 128 of 131If the primary root bridge loses power, which switch takes over?

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    Correct answer: C. switch 0004.9A1A.C182

    The switch with the lowest MAC address becomes the new root bridge in STP.

  129. Question 129 of 131See the exhibit. With 'ip subnet-zero' on all routers, which addresses suit Link A and Network A? (Pick two)

    Select 2 answers.

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    Correct answer: A. Network A – 172.16.3.128/25 · C. Link A – 172.16.3.0/30

    The exhibit is not provided, so the answer cannot be verified without visual context.

  130. Question 130 of 131Which three describe OSPF? (Pick three)

    Select 2 answers.

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    Correct answer: B. Limits instability to one area · C. Offers detailed routing update control

    OSPF is a link-state protocol, not an EGP, so 'A' and 'F' are incorrect.

  131. Question 131 of 131What features describe the network in the diagram? (Choose two)

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    Correct answer: A. Seven collision domains exist

    The answer key is incorrect as it only provides one option for a two-part question. A diagram is needed to verify the number of collision and broadcast domains.

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