CCNA 200-301 Practice Questions & Answers – Part 4
Boost your CCNA 200-301 exam readiness with this practice video, covering key topics like wireless LAN standards, access lists, WLC QoS profiles, and OSPFv3 enhancements. Follow CertPunch for more certification practice and visit certpunch.com.
Chapters:
00:00 Intro
00:20 Question 1 of 32
01:17 Question 2 of 32
02:06 Question 3 of 32
02:42 Question 4 of 32
03:44 Question 5 of 32
04:44 Question 6 of 32
05:44 Question 7 of 32
07:21 Question 8 of 32
08:34 Question 9 of 32
09:47 Question 10 of 32
11:14 Question 11 of 32
12:09 Question 12 of 32
12:50 Question 13 of 32
13:30 Question 14 of 32
14:08 Question 15 of 32
14:50 Question 16 of 32
15:34 Question 17 of 32
16:20 Question 18 of 32
16:57 Question 19 of 32
17:43 Question 20 of 32
19:15 Question 21 of 32
20:04 Question 22 of 32
23:28 Question 23 of 32
24:49 Question 24 of 32
25:58 Question 25 of 32
26:51 Question 26 of 32
27:31 Question 27 of 32
28:50 Question 28 of 32
30:05 Question 29 of 32
31:05 Question 30 of 32
32:34 Question 31 of 32
33:29 Question 32 of 32
What you will practice
- Which wireless LAN standard uses both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz bands?
- What's true about access lists on an interface?
- Which WLC QoS profile prioritizes voice traffic?
- Which two enhancements does OSPFv3 offer over OSPFv2? (Pick two)
- After manually adding an AP, comms speed and quality dropped. What might cause this? (Pick two)
- Which two describe access lists correctly? (Pick two)
Answers and explanations
Tap a question to expand the answer and the exam reasoning. Try to commit to your own pick first.
Q1. Which wireless LAN standard uses both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz bands?
Answer: C. IEEE 802.11n
802.11n operates on both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz bands, while earlier standards use single bands.
Q2. What's true about access lists on an interface?
Answer: C. One ACL per direction per Layer 3 protocol
One ACL per protocol per direction per interface is the correct rule, avoiding confusion about unlimited use.
Q3. Which WLC QoS profile prioritizes voice traffic?
Answer: A. Platinum
Platinum is the highest QoS profile for voice, ensuring priority over other traffic types.
Q4. Which two enhancements does OSPFv3 offer over OSPFv2? (Pick two)
Answer: B,C. Routes over links, not networks || Handles multiple IPv6 subnets per link
OSPFv3 routes per link, not subnet, and supports multiple IPv6 subnets per link. Option A is incorrect; OSPF doesn't limit instances per link.
Q5. After manually adding an AP, comms speed and quality dropped. What might cause this? (Pick two)
Answer: A,E. Overlapping channel frequencies || Poor AP placement
Overlapping channels cause interference, and poor AP placement reduces signal strength. Option B is irrelevant; authentication failure disconnects devices entirely.
Q6. Which two describe access lists correctly? (Pick two)
Answer: B,C. New conditions append to the end || Extended ACLs filter by protocol
Standard ACLs filter source IP; extended adds protocol. New rules append, with an implicit deny all at the end.
Q7. For 2001:0db8:3333:4444:5555:6666:7777:8888/64 (from provider 2001:0db8:3333::/48), what's the subnet?
Answer: E. 4444
In a /64 global unicast address, the first 48 bits are provider-assigned, and the next 16 bits form the subnet.
Q8. Which IPs are Class A? (Select all that apply)
Answer: C,E. 124.192.168.5 || 10.255.255.170
Class A ranges from 0.0.0.0 to 127.255.255.255; 172.x.x.x is Class B.
Q9. What two statements are true about 'ip route 172.16.3.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.4'? (Pick two)
Answer: A,B. Creates a static route to 172.16.3.0 || Uses default administrative distance
This command creates a static route to 172.16.3.0 using 192.168.2.4 with default AD.
Q10. Which commands create VLAN 2 named 'Ping-t' and assign it to a port? (Select three)
Answer: A,B,F. (config)#interface FastEthernet 0/1\n(config-if)#switchport access vlan 2 || (config-vlan)#name Ping-t || (config)#vlan 2
Commands include creating VLAN 2, naming it, and assigning it to an interface.
Q11. Which two stats appear in 'show frame-relay map' output? (Pick two)
Answer: A,C. PVC status on the router || Local DLCI value
Local DLCI and PVC status appear in 'show frame-relay map' output. BECN/FECN counts are not shown.
Q12. Which STP feature shifts a port straight to forwarding?
Answer: A. PortFast
PortFast bypasses STP delays, moving ports straight to forwarding for single-device connections.
Q13. Which protocol might overload a managed device's CPU?
Answer: D. SNMP
SNMP can overload CPU with high polling rates. Other options are performance tools but not CPU hogs.
Q14. What Netflow component tracks IPv4 traffic when applied to an interface?
Answer: C. Flow monitor
Flow monitor attaches to interfaces. Flow records define data, and exporters send it to collectors.
Q15. Which Cisco platform can validate ACLs?
Answer: A. Cisco Wireless LAN Controller
Cisco IOS-XE validates ACLs, unlike other platforms which may require external tools. The Wireless LAN Controller is a distractor.
Q16. What advantage does switch stacking offer?
Answer: A. Increases port density with efficient resource use
Switch stacking increases port density efficiently. Redundancy and performance are secondary benefits.
Q17. Which interface counter helps spot a duplex mismatch?
Answer: E. Late collisions
Late collisions indicate a duplex mismatch. Option C, CRC errors, can also suggest issues but are not specific to duplex.
Q18. What's the purpose of POST on a router?
Answer: D. Checks for added hardware
POST checks for added hardware. The config register and IOS image boot are handled later in the boot process.
Q19. Which three are flow control types? (Pick three)
Answer: C,D,E. Windowing || Congestion avoidance || Buffering
Windowing, congestion avoidance, and buffering are flow control types. Load balancing and cut-through are unrelated.
Q20. Which IPs fall within the 115.64.4.0/22 CIDR block? (Pick three)
Answer: A,B,D. 115.64.7.64 || 115.64.6.255 || 115.64.5.128
115.64.7.64, 115.64.6.255, and 115.64.5.128 fall within the /22 CIDR block range.
Q21. What does 'resource sharing' mean in cloud computing?
Answer: B. Multiple users accessing resources
Resource sharing means multiple users access pooled resources, a key cloud computing characteristic.
Q22. See the exhibit. What commands enable Host 1 and Host 2 communication on the 2950 switch and router? (Pick two)
Answer: A,B. Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0\nRouter(config-if)# no shut down\nRouter(config)#interface fastethernet 0/0.1\nRouter(config-subif)#encapsulation dot1q 10\nRouter(config-subif)# ip address 192.168.10.1 255.255.255.0\nRouter(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0.2\nRouter(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 20\nRouter(config-subif)# ip address 192.168.20.1 255.255.255.0 || Switch1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1\nSwitch1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
Router subinterfaces with VLANs and a trunked switch link enable inter-VLAN communication.
Q23. Four switches are set with hostnames and RSTP, with no further tweaks. Which three indicate correct RSTP port roles? (Pick three)
Answer: A,C,D. SwitchA, Fa0/2, designated || SwitchA, Fa0/1, root || SwitchD, Gi0/2, root
RSTP port roles depend on topology and switch positions. The question lacks sufficient details to definitively select the correct options.
Q24. Which command avoids altering the OSPF network type?
Answer: C. (CONFIG-IF) #IP OSPF NETWORK POINT-to-POINT
C is correct as interface config mode is required. Trap: E uses 'Point-to-Point' which is invalid syntax.
Q25. Which two statements about IPv4 multicast traffic are correct? (Pick two)
Answer: A,D. Most efficient for multi-receiver delivery || Delivers multiple streams at once
Multicast is efficient for multi-receiver delivery but uses bandwidth proportional to streams.
Q26. What does 'show snmp EngineId' confirm?
Answer: E. Manager IP address
The command shows the SNMP manager's IP address, not the agent's details.
Q27. How does this ACL affect traffic when applied outbound on E0 (192.169.1.8/29 LAN): 'access-list 135 deny tcp 192.169.1.8 0.0.0.7 eq 20 any' and 'access-list 135 deny tcp 192.169.1.8 0.0.0.7 eq 21 any'?
Answer: B. Blocks all traffic leaving E0
B is correct; the ACL lacks a 'permit' statement, blocking all traffic. Trap: A misstates source IP range.
Q28. Which switch does STP select as the root bridge?
Answer: A. 32768: 11-22-33-44-55-66
The switch with the lowest Bridge ID (BID) becomes the root bridge. Option A is correct as it has a lower BID than the others.
Q29. If the primary root bridge loses power, which switch takes over?
Answer: C. switch 0004.9A1A.C182
The switch with the lowest MAC address becomes the new root bridge in STP.
Q30. See the exhibit. With 'ip subnet-zero' on all routers, which addresses suit Link A and Network A? (Pick two)
Answer: A,C. Network A – 172.16.3.128/25 || Link A – 172.16.3.0/30
The exhibit is not provided, so the answer cannot be verified without visual context.
Q31. Which three describe OSPF? (Pick three)
Answer: B,C. Limits instability to one area || Offers detailed routing update control
OSPF is a link-state protocol, not an EGP, so 'A' and 'F' are incorrect.
Q32. What features describe the network in the diagram? (Choose two)
Answer: A. Seven collision domains exist
The answer key is incorrect as it only provides one option for a two-part question. A diagram is needed to verify the number of collision and broadcast domains.
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