CCNA 200-301 Practice Questions Part 3: STP, PVST+, & IP Addressing
Boost your CCNA 200-301 exam readiness with these practice questions covering STP, PVST+, and IP addressing. Follow CertPunch for more certification prep and visit certpunch.com.
Chapters:
00:00 Intro
00:20 Question 1 of 33
01:11 Question 2 of 33
02:01 Question 3 of 33
02:45 Question 4 of 33
03:23 Question 5 of 33
04:37 Question 6 of 33
05:10 Question 7 of 33
06:33 Question 8 of 33
07:31 Question 9 of 33
09:03 Question 10 of 33
09:49 Question 11 of 33
10:43 Question 12 of 33
11:28 Question 13 of 33
12:32 Question 14 of 33
14:00 Question 15 of 33
14:56 Question 16 of 33
15:48 Question 17 of 33
16:35 Question 18 of 33
17:18 Question 19 of 33
18:08 Question 20 of 33
19:22 Question 21 of 33
20:15 Question 22 of 33
22:36 Question 23 of 33
23:22 Question 24 of 33
24:04 Question 25 of 33
24:47 Question 26 of 33
25:34 Question 27 of 33
26:33 Question 28 of 33
27:36 Question 29 of 33
28:26 Question 30 of 33
29:16 Question 31 of 33
30:00 Question 32 of 33
32:51 Question 33 of 33
What you will practice
- Why does a network admin get an error configuring 10.24.24.24/29 on a router's Ethernet interface?
- What's a key benefit of PVST+?
- Which command activates RSTP on a switch?
- Which file transfer protocol requires a connection?
- Which three describe RSTP correctly? (Pick three)
- Which router boot step finds the IOS image?
Answers and explanations
Tap a question to expand the answer and the exam reasoning. Try to commit to your own pick first.
Q1. Why does a network admin get an error configuring 10.24.24.24/29 on a router's Ethernet interface?
Answer: B. It's a network address
10.24.24.24/29 is the network address, unusable for hosts. Option A is wrong; 31 is the broadcast address.
Q2. What's a key benefit of PVST+?
Answer: B. Optimizes root switch placement per VLAN
PVST+ optimizes root placement per VLAN for better load balancing. Option C is wrong; root selection is manual or via STP priorities.
Q3. Which command activates RSTP on a switch?
Answer: D. spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst
The 'spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst' command enables RSTP on Cisco switches, which is the standard for loop prevention.
Q4. Which file transfer protocol requires a connection?
Answer: E. FTP
FTP uses TCP for connection-oriented transfers; the other options are connectionless or not file transfer.
Q5. Which three describe RSTP correctly? (Pick three)
Answer: A,B,F. Converges faster than STP on failure || Adds alternate and backup port roles || Enables timer-free convergence on point-to-point links
RSTP converges faster, adds alternate/backup ports, and achieves timer-free convergence on point-to-point links.
Q6. Which router boot step finds the IOS image?
Answer: A. Bootstrap
The bootstrap step finds the IOS image, while POST performs hardware checks.
Q7. Which IPs can be assigned to hosts on 192.168.2.0/26? (Select three)
Answer: B,C,F. 192.168.2.40 || 192.168.2.15 || 192.168.2.32
The valid host IPs range from 192.168.2.1 to 192.168.2.62 for /26 subnet.
Q8. What two tasks does DHCP handle? (Pick two)
Answer: A,B. Sets IP parameters from server to host || Assigns and renews IPs from a pool
DHCP assigns IP addresses and parameters like DNS and gateway to hosts.
Q9. What's the state sequence for an OSPF router from start to convergence?
Answer: A. DOWN → INIT → 2WAY → EXSTART → Exchange → Loading → Full
OSPF router state sequence starts with DOWN and progresses to Full via INIT, 2WAY, and Exchange.
Q10. What's the most accurate PortFast description?
Answer: A. Shifts from blocking to forwarding instantly
PortFast shifts a port directly from blocking to forwarding, skipping listening and learning states.
Q11. Consider the diagram. When using OSPF, what might prevent Router A from establishing adjacency with Router B?
Answer: B. Dead timer values differ between the routers
Dead timer mismatches prevent OSPF adjacency. Process IDs are locally significant and do not affect neighbor formation.
Q12. How can you turn off DTP on a switch port?
Answer: A. Set the port as a trunk
Configuring a port as a trunk disables DTP to prevent negotiation. Option C is a trap because static access mode alone doesn't disable DTP.
Q13. Which two claims about wireless LAN controllers hold true? (Pick two)
Answer: A,D. They streamline wireless LAN management and rollout || They oversee mobility policies system-wide
WLAN controllers streamline management and enforce mobility policies. Option B is a trap because CLI is also available for setup.
Q14. To subnet three web servers on one network with maximum subnets, which address and mask fit best?
Answer: B. 192.168.252.8 255.255.255.248
B fits three hosts with 248 mask. Cuses .0 but doesn’t specify host IP, while 252 only allows two hosts.
Q15. A firm installs IP phones alongside office PCs on the same device. To maximize phone data throughput, separating phone and PC traffic is key. Which device and tech combo works best? (Pick two)
Answer: A,B. Switch || VLAN
A and B are correct; switches use VLANs to separate traffic. Routers and subinterfaces are overkill here.
Q16. When is a static route most suitable?
Answer: A. Linking an ISP router to a corporate network
A static route is ideal for linking an ISP router to a corporate network as it's a simple, fixed path. Low administrative distance protocols are a distractor.
Q17. For a network with 40 PCs sharing four global IPs, which NAT type ensures all can connect to the internet simultaneously?
Answer: D. Overload
NAT Overload (PAT) allows multiple PCs to share four global IPs using port translation. Static NAT is 1:1 and insufficient.
Q18. Which protocol advertises a virtual IP for seamless failover on Cisco routers?
Answer: A. FHRP
FHRP provides virtual IP failover, with HSRP as a common Cisco implementation. DHCP is unrelated to redundancy.
Q19. What's the best definition of MTU?
Answer: D. Maximum packet size sent in one go
MTU is the largest packet size that can be sent in one transfer. Option A is too vague.
Q20. Which two outputs from 'show interfaces' verify interface reliability? (Pick two)
Answer: B,D. 'Reliability' indicates interface trustworthiness || Most reliable is '255/255', least is '0/255'
The 'Reliability' field shows trustworthiness; '255/255' is full reliability. 'TXLOAD' and 'RXLOAD' measure load, not reliability.
Q21. How do you recover ports in ERR-DISABLED state due to port security violations?
Answer: C. Shut down then re-enable the interface with 'shutdown' and 'no shutdown'
You must first shut down the port with 'shutdown', then re-enable it with 'no shutdown'.
Q22. Which commands configure a static route to 10.5.6.0/24 on the HFD router? (Choose two)
Answer: A,B. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.6.0 255.255.255.0 10.5.4.6 || HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.6.0 255.255.255.0 fa0/0
The correct syntax is 'ip route {dest-net} {mask} {next-hop | exit-interface}'. Option C reverses the destination and next-hop.
Q23. Which command allows SSH or Telnet access on a Cisco switch with configured VTY lines?
Answer: A. transport input all
The 'transport input all' command allows both SSH and Telnet. Option B, 'output', is a distractor as the command is 'input'.
Q24. In cloud services, what model offers infrastructure as a service?
Answer: A. IaaS
IaaS provides virtualized hardware like servers. Option D, PaaS, is platforms, and option B, SaaS, is software.
Q25. In Cisco's 3-tier model, which layer uses a star topology?
Answer: E. Access layer
The access layer uses a star topology, connecting devices radially to a central switch. Core and distribution layers typically use partial mesh for redundancy.
Q26. Which command displays general Netflow data on the CLI?
Answer: A. show ip cache flow
show ip cache flow displays general Netflow data. Other options are for specific features like top-talkers or sampling.
Q27. Which two describe ASCII PSK format correctly? (Pick two)
Answer: A,D. It's the default PSK format || Sets keys with 8-63 alphanumeric characters
ASCII PSK is the default format with 8-63 alphanumeric characters. HEX uses 64 hex digits.
Q28. What two methods protect network device configs from external threats? (Pick two)
Answer: A,B. Use a firewall to limit outside access || Employ SSH or encrypted transport for config access
Firewalls and encrypted SSH protect configs. Open access or Telnet are insecure, so Options C, D, E are traps.
Q29. What must be set on a Cisco switch for an IP phone to function?
Answer: A. Interface as access port with voice VLAN ID
An IP phone needs a voice VLAN configured on the switch port to separate voice traffic. Option C is incorrect as it's only required on the interface.
Q30. Which technologies enable stateless IPv6 address assignment? (Select all that apply)
Answer: A,B. Autoconfiguration || DHCPv6
Autoconfiguration and DHCPv6 (stateless mode) enable stateless IPv6 address assignment. DHCP is for IPv4 only.
Q31. When debugging an ACL issue on a router, which command shows affected interfaces?
Answer: A. show ip interface
The 'show ip interface' command displays ACLs applied to interfaces, not the rules themselves.
Q32. Which commands set an IPv6 static route? (Select three)
Answer: B,D,F. IPv6 Route 2001:DB8:1234:5678::/128 Serial0/0 FE80::1 || IPv6 Route 2001:DB8:1234:5678::/128 2001:DB8:9ABC::DEF || IPv6 Route 2001:DB8:1234:5678::/128 GigabitEthernet1/0/1
The correct syntax is 'IPv6 Route' followed by the prefix, exit interface, and next hop.
Q33. What command sequence creates VLAN 20 and assigns it to an interface?
Answer: A. Switch(config)#vlan 20\nSwitch(config)#Interface gig x/y\nSwitch(config-if)#switchport access vlan 20
First create VLAN 20, then enter the interface and assign it with 'switchport access vlan 20'.
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