CCNA 200-301 Practice Questions Part 2: IPv6 and VLANs Explained
Boost your CCNA 200-301 exam readiness with these practice questions focusing on IPv6 addressing and VLAN configurations. Follow CertPunch for more certification prep and visit certpunch.com for additional resources.
Chapters:
00:00 Intro
00:20 Question 1 of 33
01:36 Question 2 of 33
02:48 Question 3 of 33
05:16 Question 4 of 33
06:03 Question 5 of 33
07:43 Question 6 of 33
08:25 Question 7 of 33
09:08 Question 8 of 33
09:47 Question 9 of 33
11:05 Question 10 of 33
11:46 Question 11 of 33
12:45 Question 12 of 33
13:46 Question 13 of 33
15:01 Question 14 of 33
15:41 Question 15 of 33
17:02 Question 16 of 33
17:49 Question 17 of 33
18:32 Question 18 of 33
19:23 Question 19 of 33
20:24 Question 20 of 33
21:44 Question 21 of 33
22:34 Question 22 of 33
23:36 Question 23 of 33
24:39 Question 24 of 33
25:22 Question 25 of 33
26:03 Question 26 of 33
26:58 Question 27 of 33
27:41 Question 28 of 33
28:37 Question 29 of 33
29:29 Question 30 of 33
30:10 Question 31 of 33
30:55 Question 32 of 33
32:11 Question 33 of 33
What you will practice
- Which command assigns a static IPv6 address to a router interface manually?
- Which three statements reflect typical VLAN setup traits? (Pick three)
- In what two ways can the IPv6 address fd15:0db8:0000:0000:0700:0003:400F:572B be shortened? (Pick two)
- Which address types are used in IPv6? (Select two)
- Which IPv6 address is valid?
- What term describes supporting both IPv4 and IPv6?
Answers and explanations
Tap a question to expand the answer and the exam reasoning. Try to commit to your own pick first.
Q1. Which command assigns a static IPv6 address to a router interface manually?
Answer: A. ipv6 address 2001:db8:2222:7272::72/64
The 'ipv6 address' command manually configures an IPv6 address. Option C is a trap because 'autoconfig' is for stateless address autoconfiguration.
Q2. Which three statements reflect typical VLAN setup traits? (Pick three)
Answer: B,D,E. Each VLAN has its own address space || Inter-VLAN connectivity needs a Layer 3 device || Switches keep a unique bridging table per VLAN
VLANs have separate address spaces and require Layer 3 devices for inter-VLAN communication. Option A is a trap because switches default to VLAN 1.
Q3. In what two ways can the IPv6 address fd15:0db8:0000:0000:0700:0003:400F:572B be shortened? (Pick two)
Answer: B,D. fd15:db8::700:3:400F:572B || fd15:0db8:0000:0000:700:3:400F:527B
Option B correctly removes leading zeros and compresses zeros with double colons. Option D also compresses but misses leading zero removal.
Q4. Which address types are used in IPv6? (Select two)
Answer: D,E. Unicast || Multicast
D and E are correct; IPv6 uses unicast and multicast, not broadcast. All cast and fast cast are invalid.
Q5. Which IPv6 address is valid?
Answer: B. 2031:0:130F::9C0:876A:130B
B is valid; it uses proper hex and single '::' compression. G/H and double '::' in D are invalid.
Q6. What term describes supporting both IPv4 and IPv6?
Answer: E. Dual stack
Dual stack supports both IPv4 and IPv6 simultaneously, making it the correct term. NAT and STP are unrelated technologies.
Q7. Which protocol accesses the RESTful API of an SDN controller?
Answer: A. HTTPS
HTTPS is used to access RESTful APIs in SDN controllers like Cisco DNA Center. OpenFlow is a Southbound protocol.
Q8. When a host discards a damaged frame after checksum failure, which OSI layer is involved?
Answer: A. Data Link
The Data Link layer handles frame checksums and discards damaged frames. Network layer deals with IP packets.
Q9. Which three statements accurately depict Layer 2 Ethernet switches? (Pick three)
Answer: A,B,C. VLANs increase broadcast domains || In redundant networks, each segment has one root bridge with all ports forwarding || Microsegmentation cuts collision occurrences
Microsegmentation creates individual collision domains per device, reducing collisions. VLANs increase broadcast domains, not decrease them.
Q10. At the data link layer, what determines the destination?
Answer: A. MAC address
The data link layer uses the MAC address to identify the destination device. IP addresses are Layer 3.
Q11. Which three statements correctly describe RADIUS? (Pick three)
Answer: C,D,F. Is an industry-standard protocol || Operates with UDP || Supports accounting
RADIUS uses UDP for transport and supports authentication, authorization, and accounting. It does not separate authentication from authorization.
Q12. Which settings must match to bundle ports in EtherChannel? (Select three)
Answer: B,D,E. Trunking mode || Switch port type (access/trunk/Layer 3) || Speed and duplex settings
Ports in an EtherChannel must have matching trunking mode, port type, and speed/duplex settings to form a bundle.
Q13. How do you set a switch's hostname?
Answer: B. switch-mdf-c1(config)#hostname switch-mdf1
The hostname is configured in global configuration mode. Option A incorrectly tries to set it in interface configuration mode.
Q14. When multiple routes are in the routing table, what's prioritized for route selection?
Answer: B. Longest match
Longest match is the first priority for route selection. Option C, administrative distance, is the second priority.
Q15. Which IP addresses are usable on the 192.168.16.32/28 subnet? (Select three)
Answer: A,C,D. 192.168.16.44 || 192.168.16.33 || 192.168.16.45
The /28 subnet has usable IPs from .33 to .46. Option B is the network address, and option E is the broadcast.
Q16. What happens when a switch with all ports on VLAN 2 (full duplex FastEthernet) adds ports to a new VLAN?
Answer: D. A new broadcast domain emerges
Each VLAN creates a new broadcast domain. Option C is incorrect as full duplex eliminates collisions.
Q17. To view settings loaded on router restart, which command should you use?
Answer: C. show startup-config
The startup-config is loaded on reboot. Option E shows the running-config, which is lost on power cycle unless saved.
Q18. Which statement about native VLAN traffic is correct?
Answer: C. Native VLAN traffic is tagged with VLAN 1 by default
Native VLAN traffic is untagged by default, not tagged with VLAN 1. CDP uses the native VLAN, but Option D is incorrect.
Q19. See the exhibit. Replacing a hub with a switch (one Ethernet VLAN), what two outcomes occur? (Pick two)
Answer: A,F. Collision domains increase || Broadcast domains remain unchanged
Replacing a hub with a switch increases collision domains per port but keeps broadcast domains the same. Options B and D are traps.
Q20. See the exhibit. Router edge-1 can't form OSPF adjacency with ISP-1. Which two changes on edge-1 fix this? (Pick two)
Answer: B,C. Lower edge-1's MTU to 1500 || Run 'ip ospf mtu-ignore' on edge-1's Gi0/0
OSPF adjacency fails due to MTU mismatch. Lowering MTU or using 'ip ospf mtu-ignore' bypasses the check.
Q21. In WPA/WPA2 PSK authentication, which PSK formats are available? (Pick two)
Answer: A,E. ASCII || HEX
WPA/WPA2 PSK supports ASCII and HEX formats. OCT, BIN, and DEC are not valid options.
Q22. Which two statements about Telnet are true? (Pick two)
Answer: A,F. Requires pre-configuration on the target device || Sends data in plain text
Telnet requires pre-configuration on the target device and sends data in plain text. Option B is a trap as SSH is independent of Telnet.
Q23. Which destination ports must be allowed for VTY access control with an extended ACL? (Select two)
Answer: A,E. 23 (Telnet) || 22 (SSH)
VTY access requires permitting SSH (22) and Telnet (23) in extended ACLs. Other ports like HTTP or TFTP are unrelated to VTY.
Q24. Among network monitoring protocols, which offers the highest security?
Answer: D. SNMPv3
SNMPv3 offers the highest security with authentication and encryption. SNMPv2C uses insecure community strings.
Q25. Which feature creates a FIB and adjacency table for faster packet forwarding?
Answer: B. Cisco Express Forwarding
Cisco Express Forwarding creates a FIB and adjacency table for faster packet forwarding compared to process switching.
Q26. What's the role of spanning tree in a switched network? (Pick three)
Answer: C,D,E. Stops broadcast storms || Auto-switches routes on failure || Prevents switching loops
STP prevents switching loops, which stops broadcast storms and allows for automatic failover.
Q27. Which Cisco Catalyst feature disables a PortFast port upon BPDU receipt?
Answer: B. BPDU Guard
BPDU Guard disables a PortFast port if it receives a BPDU to prevent loops from unauthorized devices.
Q28. Which conditions can an extended IP access list specify? (Select four)
Answer: B,C,D,E. Port number || Protocol || Source IP address || Destination IP address
Extended ACLs can filter by protocol, source IP, destination IP, and port number.
Q29. Which two describe IaaS? (Pick two)
Answer: A,D. Lets you pick the OS || Allows CPU and memory selection
IaaS allows OS and hardware choices like CPU and memory, unlike SaaS examples like Office 365.
Q30. What threat self-replicates and spreads across a network?
Answer: B. Worm
Worms self-replicate across networks, unlike viruses or Trojans which require user interaction.
Q31. What does a standard IP access list filter?
Answer: E. Source IP address
Standard IP ACLs filter only source IP, unlike extended ACLs which include ports and protocols.
Q32. Which three describe CDP settings accurately? (Pick three)
Answer: A,B,D. CDP off globally prevents per-interface disabling || Disable CDP globally in config mode || Disable CDP per interface in interface config mode
CDP is enabled by default globally; disabling it with 'cdp run' prevents per-interface changes. Option E is incorrect because global CDP enables per-interface disabling.
Q33. If SwitchA's VLAN-assigned hosts can't reach same-VLAN hosts on SwitchB, what's likely wrong?
Answer: B. Switch link needs trunking
Trunk ports are required between switches to carry multiple VLANs. Option A is wrong because access links carry only one VLAN.
More CCNA 200-301 and Answers drills and other practice exams are on @CertPunch. New rounds drop every few days at certpunch.com.