GIAC
GSEC
Question 61 of 334Which two are examples of risk avoidance? (Choose two.)
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Correct answer: C. C) Removing an asset from the environment · D. D) Altering business processes
Risk avoidance involves changing business processes or completely removing an asset to eliminate the associated threat. Outsourcing is a classic example of risk transfer, while ignoring a threat is simply negligence, not a valid strategy.
Question 62 of 334How can someone create a steganography-encoded message using just a text editor? (Choose two.)
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Correct answer: B. B) Craft a message so that every fourth word is the secret content. · D. D) Use whitespace encoding.
Using a concealment cipher or whitespace encoding allows hidden messages within text without requiring specialized graphical tools. Least significant bit manipulation applies to image or audio files, not standard ASCII text editing.
Question 63 of 334Which of the following is NOT likely a type of steganography?
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Correct answer: B. B) A keystroke logger wrapped inside of a browser plug-in
A keystroke logger wrapped inside a browser plug-in is a Trojan horse, not steganography, because it focuses on malware delivery rather than hiding secret messages. Steganography requires concealing information within a carrier file without revealing its presence.
Question 64 of 334Why is symmetric encryption a challenge to implement as a stand-alone concept?
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Correct answer: D. D) Secure key exchange
Secure key exchange is the primary challenge of symmetric encryption because both parties need the same key over an insecure medium. Asymmetric cryptography solves this through digital envelopes and key agreement protocols.
Question 65 of 334Which of the following is NOT a steganography technique?
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Correct answer: A. A) Orthogonal frequency division multiplexing
Orthogonal frequency division multiplexing is a wireless modulation technique for encoding data onto multiple carrier frequencies, not a steganographic method. The other options represent legitimate ways to hide data within various media.
Question 66 of 334How are the keys in an asymmetric encryption system generated?
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Correct answer: A. A) The private key is generated at random, and then the public key is derived from the private key.
In asymmetric cryptography, the private key is generated randomly, and the public key is derived from it using a one-way mathematical function. This prevents attackers from reverse-engineering the private key if they obtain the public key.
Question 67 of 334Which of the following is a protocol that can be used as a VPN solution?
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Correct answer: C. C) TLS
Transport Layer Security (TLS) is correct because it is the foundational protocol for VPN solutions like OpenVPN. For the exam, remember that while SSH supports tunneling, Secure Copy (SCP) is only a file transfer utility and not a VPN protocol.
Question 68 of 334What is the purpose of sharing threat intelligence as related to risk assessment?
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Correct answer: A. A) Equip other organizations to handle a looming security concern.
Sharing threat intelligence equips other organizations to proactively handle looming security concerns. Sharing is about collective defense and awareness, not about removing intellectual property ownership or attempting to trick attackers into abandoning exploits.
Question 69 of 334An organization has a properly implemented enterprise risk management (ERM). What is the tool used to list and categorize each discovered or encountered risk?
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Correct answer: A. A) Risk register
A risk register is used to formally list, categorize, and track all discovered risks within an enterprise risk management program. It serves as an actionable tracking document, whereas threat models are used to evaluate specific vulnerabilities.
Question 70 of 334STRIDE is a threat assessment model used to evaluate the type and severity of a risk. Which of the following is a correct listing of the elements of STRIDE?
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Correct answer: A. A) Spoofing identity, Tampering with data, Repudiation, Information disclosure, Denial of service, Elevation of privilege
STRIDE correctly stands for Spoofing identity, Tampering, Repudiation, Information disclosure, Denial of service, and Elevation of privilege. Use this mnemonic on the exam to quickly distinguish it from other models like DREAD, which focuses on damage and exploitability.
Question 71 of 334What is a valid description of risk deterrence?
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Correct answer: D. D) Harming the threat agent
Risk deterrence involves discouraging attackers by threatening harm or retaliation, such as actively pursuing prosecution. For the exam, clearly distinguish this from risk mitigation, which focuses on implementing safeguards rather than threatening the threat agent.
Question 72 of 334Which type of cryptographic attack attempts to discover the unique symmetric key used to encrypt a data file when the algorithm is known?
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Correct answer: A. A) Brute force
A brute force attack systematically attempts every possible key in the keyspace to find the exact symmetric key used for encryption. While dictionary attacks target passwords, brute force is the only method guaranteed to eventually find the specific key.
Question 73 of 334Why is least significant bit (LSB) steganography encoding difficult to detect?
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Correct answer: C. C) It uses changed and unchanged elements to encode the hidden message
LSB steganography is exceptionally difficult to detect because it uses a mixture of changed and unchanged elements to encode hidden messages. This lack of a consistent alteration pattern prevents easy detection, unlike file size or hash value changes.
Question 74 of 334How can an organization properly defend against an accusation of ignoring a known risk?
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Correct answer: D. D) Formal risk acceptance
Producing a document showing formal risk acceptance, signed by senior management, defends against accusations of ignoring a risk. Implementing countermeasures after the fact is too late, as proper risk management requires documentation before an incident occurs.
Question 75 of 334An organization responds to security violations only as they occur. What term describes the state or condition in which this organization operates?
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Correct answer: D. D) Reactive state
A reactive state describes an organization that only addresses security incidents after they happen. The proactive state is the opposite, meaning the organization plans ahead and implements controls before a compromise occurs.
Question 76 of 334Why is a hash effective at detecting changes to a dataset across time?
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Correct answer: B. B) The avalanche effect
The avalanche effect ensures that even a tiny change in the input data produces a significantly different hash output. While binary math is heavily used in cryptography, the avalanche effect specifically guarantees strict integrity violation detection.
Question 77 of 334Which of the following elements of cryptography is NOT used by the real-world cryptosystems of a VPN?
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Correct answer: A. A) Static symmetric keys
Secure virtual private networks rely on ephemeral session keys rather than static symmetric keys, which are heavily vulnerable to interception. Hashing, digital signatures, and asymmetric key pair sets are all required components to establish secure tunnels.
Question 78 of 334Why is it important to allow algorithms to be known and public?
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Correct answer: D. D) To discover flaws
Public algorithms allow the global cryptography community to thoroughly analyze and test the mathematical structure to discover any hidden flaws. Security relies entirely on the secrecy of the private key, not on keeping the algorithm itself hidden.
Question 79 of 334Which of the following is NOT a component or element of PKI?
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Correct answer: C. C) Steganography
Steganography hides secret messages within ordinary files and is not a core component of a public key infrastructure. Public key infrastructure strictly combines asymmetric encryption, symmetric encryption, hashing, and digital certificates.
Question 80 of 334Which of the following files is a poor choice for a host file to encode a secret message using steganography techniques?
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Correct answer: B. B) pagefile.sys
A pagefile is a poor steganography host because the operating system constantly modifies it. Steganography requires a static host file to prevent hidden data from being overwritten or corrupted, making images or executables much safer choices.
Question 81 of 334What is the name of the calculation that multiplies the assigned value of an asset by the estimated amount of loss if a single event of compromise takes place?
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Correct answer: D. D) SLE
Single loss expectancy, or SLE, represents the expected financial loss from a single security incident. Remember the exam formula SLE equals asset value multiplied by exposure factor, which contrasts with annualized loss expectancy calculations.
Question 82 of 334What is the definition of risk transfer?
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Correct answer: C. C) Assigning a risk to another entity
Risk transfer involves shifting the potential impact of a risk to a third party, typically through purchasing insurance. Do not confuse this with risk mitigation, which reduces the likelihood or severity of the threat using internal safeguards.
Question 83 of 334What is the cost benefit equation as related to risk management?
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Correct answer: C. C) (ALE1 - ALE2) - CCM
The cost benefit equation is calculated by taking the annualized loss expectancy before a safeguard, subtracting the reduced annualized loss expectancy, and then subtracting the cost of the countermeasure. Remember that annualized loss expectancy alone only calculates total potential risk.
Question 84 of 334What would be the encrypted form of the message ATTACK if a 4-position substitution cipher was used?
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Correct answer: D. D) EXXEGO
A four position substitution cipher, commonly known as a Caesar shift, encrypts ATTACK into EXXEGO by shifting each letter forward four positions in the alphabet. Recognizing standard alphabetical shifts helps quickly eliminate transposition or reversal distractors.
Question 85 of 334How is the ARO calculated?
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Correct answer: B. B) It is derived from historical occurrences.
The annualized rate of occurrence is derived from historical occurrences to estimate how often a threat might materialize over a year. Remember that asset value determines exposure factor or loss, but frequency relies on past incident data.
Question 86 of 334Which form of risk assessment methodology is based on assigning numbers and using calculations to determine the priority of threats?
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Correct answer: B. B) Quantitative
Quantitative risk assessment relies on mathematical formulas like annualized loss expectancy to calculate risk. A strong exam cue is to look for dollar amounts, while qualitative methods use subjective rankings like high, medium, and low.
Question 87 of 334How did the list of Critical Security Controls (CSCs) come into existence?
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Correct answer: C. C) A request by the Office of the Secretary of Defense to the NSA to assist with prioritizing security controls based on defending against known attacks
The controls originated from a request by the Office of the Secretary of Defense to the National Security Agency to prioritize defenses against known attacks. Remember that these controls focus on mitigating actual, documented real-world threats.
Question 88 of 334Why is the FRAP risk assessment methodology significantly more cost effective than other options?
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Correct answer: A. A) It focuses on using mostly pre-screened systems.
The Facilitated Risk Assessment Process saves time and money by focusing strictly on pre-screened systems and evaluating risk through a business impact assessment. OCTAVE is the methodology known for using three distinct phases of workshops.
Question 89 of 334Why should the risks of an organization be reported as defined by enterprise risk management (ERM)?
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Correct answer: B. B) It helps with internal transparency, risk assessment, risk response, and risk monitoring.
Reporting risks as defined by enterprise risk management directly enables internal transparency, assessment, response, and monitoring. While strategic planning and compliance are essential security concepts, they are not the primary purpose of the risk reporting phase.
Question 90 of 334What four security services can be obtained using cryptographic solutions?
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Correct answer: D. D) Confidentiality, integrity, authentication, and non-repudiation
Cryptographic solutions provide confidentiality, integrity, authentication, and non-repudiation. Be careful not to confuse these services with the CIA triad, as cryptography does not directly provide availability, or with access control concepts like AAA.
Question 91 of 334Which term describes the process of changing protected data back into normal data within a cryptographic system?
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Correct answer: C. C) Decryption
Decryption is the process of converting ciphertext back into readable plaintext. For a quick cue, remember that encryption turns plaintext into ciphertext, while decryption reverses the process using the proper cryptographic key.
Question 92 of 334Which of the following is the most successful means of compromising encrypted storage and communications?
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Correct answer: A. A) User impersonation
User impersonation is often the most successful way to compromise encryption because it bypasses strong algorithms by stealing access to the keys. Brute forcing modern cryptography takes millennia, making direct attacks highly impractical.
Question 93 of 334Why is the steganalysis process known as stego-only NOT likely to reveal the secret communication?
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Correct answer: C. C) The steganography encoding technique is unknown.
The stego-only attack rarely reveals hidden data because the analyst lacks knowledge of the specific encoding technique used. Without the right tool or understanding how the payload was concealed, extracting the hidden message from the carrier file is nearly impossible.
Question 94 of 334During the implementation of a risk management process, you select security mechanisms and countermeasures to address identified risks. In which phase does this activity occur?
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Correct answer: D. D) Safeguard selection
Selecting security mechanisms and mitigation options occurs during the safeguard selection phase of risk management. This step happens before cost benefit analysis, where you determine if deploying the chosen countermeasure makes financial sense.
Question 95 of 334Why would someone choose to use a digital signature? (Choose two.)
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Correct answer: A. A) To prove that a message did not change in transit · E. E) To indicate the communication's sender
Digital signatures use the sender's private key to encrypt a message hash, verifying integrity and authenticating the sender's identity. Be careful not to confuse signatures with encryption; signatures do not provide confidentiality or restrict who can read the message.
Question 96 of 334An investigator has intercepted a steganography communication from the suspect. The investigator has both a known host file and a known tool, and uses them with the intercepted content to create various steganography outputs in an attempt to determine which technique or algorithm of steganography encoding was originally used for the communication. What steganography detection or extraction technique is in use?
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Correct answer: B. B) Chosen-message
The chosen-message technique uses an intercepted communication and a known host file with a known tool to re-create steganography outputs. Contrast this with known-cover, which simply compares an original cover file directly against an already embedded version.
Question 97 of 334Why are certificates a reliable form of authentication?
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Correct answer: A. A) They are a third-party proof with public key cryptography.
Digital certificates are reliable because a trusted third party, known as a certificate authority, validates the subject's identity using public key cryptography. Distractors mentioning biometrics, cloud storage, or memorized information describe different authentication factors or delivery mechanisms, not the core mechanism.
Question 98 of 334Which of the following is a mechanism for encrypting data at rest rather than in transit?
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Correct answer: C. C) EFS
The Encrypting File System, or EFS, provides data at rest encryption for files stored on disk. The other choices are protocols designed to encrypt data in transit across a network, protecting communications rather than stored files.
Question 99 of 334How is the level of risk of a specific threat against a specific asset calculated?
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Correct answer: C. C) Asset value * percentage of potential loss * annualized rate of occurrence
The correct formula multiplies asset value by the exposure factor and the annualized rate of occurrence to calculate annualized loss expectancy. The other primary formula shown is used for cost-benefit analysis rather than determining the inherent risk level.
Question 100 of 334Why is it important NOT to accept a certificate from an unknown CA while surfing the Internet?
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Correct answer: D. D) Trust in the third party is not established.
Accepting an unknown certificate authority establishes trust in an unverified third party, breaking the chain of trust. You should only trust root certificates pre-installed by the operating system or explicitly approved by administrators.
Question 101 of 334Which action on the part of a sender will be accompanied by their digital certificate when they send a communication to a recipient?
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Correct answer: C. C) Using a digital signature
Applying a digital signature uses the sender's private key, which automatically includes their public certificate. This allows the recipient to verify identity and validate the signature.
Question 102 of 334Why should a telecommuting employee choose to use a host-to-site VPN instead of a TLS-encrypted Web link to access internal company resources?
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Correct answer: C. C) Link-based security tunneling
A host-to-site virtual private network provides link-based security tunneling that encapsulates all traffic, not just web communications. However, this is technically ambiguous because modern TLS VPNs also provide host-to-site access using application-layer encryption.
Question 103 of 334What is the proper order of steps for a recipient to validate the identity of the sender when they receive a communication that has been identified by a digital certificate?
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Correct answer: D. D) Check hash, discover CA, check TRL, check validity dates, check for revocation, and make trust choice
The certificate validation process begins by checking the hash to ensure file integrity, then discovering the issuing certificate authority, and ending with a final trust choice. Always verify that the digital fingerprint remains completely unaltered first.
Question 104 of 334What is the primary use for cryptography?
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Correct answer: C. C) To provide data confidentiality
The primary purpose of cryptography is to provide data confidentiality through encryption. While hashing provides integrity and digital signatures offer authentication, confidentiality remains the foundational reason for deploying cryptographic solutions.
Question 105 of 334Which mathematical concept was created to improve the security of substitution ciphers, and was revised for use in the modern key exchange process known as Diffie-Hellman?
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Correct answer: C. C) Modulo
Modulo arithmetic calculates the remainder of a division operation, serving as a one-way function that improves substitution cipher security. For the exam, remember that modulo mathematics is also the foundational concept used to secure the Diffie Hellman key exchange process.
Question 106 of 334Why are the rules of evidence so important to follow when collecting evidence from computer systems?
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Correct answer: A. A) Computer evidence is classified as hearsay evidence.
Computer evidence is legally classified as hearsay, requiring strict collection procedures to qualify for the business records exemption. Proper chain of custody and hashing are required to prove that digital evidence remains unaltered.
Question 107 of 334What function does a physical authentication token with a display screen provide?
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Correct answer: B. B) One-time password
A hardware token with a display screen generates dynamic one-time passwords for authentication. This time-based password changes frequently, preventing replay attacks even if an attacker intercepts the credentials.
Question 108 of 334Which of the following auditing metrics evaluates the effectiveness of administrative privilege controls?
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Correct answer: B. B) Monitor which users perform system management or account management operations.
Monitoring which users perform system or account management operations directly evaluates the control of administrative privileges. Watching for unauthorized privileged actions ensures that elevated access is strictly limited and properly tracked.
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