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AWS

AWS Certified Cloud Practitioner (CLF-C02)

Exam 3 · 65 questions · Untimed · Choose another exam

  1. Question 129 of 381A research group wants to provision an Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (Amazon EC2) instance for a flexible application that can be interrupted. As a Cloud Practitioner, which of the following would you recommend as the MOST cost-optimal option?

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    Correct answer: A. Spot Instance

    Spot Instances are ideal for flexible workloads that can tolerate interruptions, offering steep discounts compared to On-Demand pricing. As a practical exam cue, always match the phrase 'can be interrupted' directly to Spot Instances to find the most cost-effective option.

  2. Question 130 of 381AWS Trusted Advisor analyzes your AWS environment and provides best practice recommendations for which of the following categories? (Select two)

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    Correct answer: B. Cost Optimization · C. Service Limits

    Trusted Advisor inspects your AWS environment and recommends best practices across five pillars: cost optimization, performance, security, fault tolerance, and service limits. For the exam, remember that Trusted Advisor specifically tracks service limits to help you avoid throttling.

  3. Question 131 of 381A startup has just moved its IT infrastructure to AWS Cloud. The CTO would like to receive detailed reports that break down the startup's AWS costs by the hour in an Amazon Simple Storage Service (Amazon S3) bucket. As a Cloud Practitioner, which AWS service would you recommend for this use-case?

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    Correct answer: D. AWS Cost & Usage Report (AWS CUR)

    The AWS Cost and Usage Report publishes comprehensive billing data into an S3 bucket and allows you to break down costs hourly. Cost Explorer is the strongest distractor, but it only provides visual dashboards rather than detailed raw data exports.

  4. Question 132 of 381Which of the following statements are CORRECT regarding security groups and network access control lists (network ACL)? (Select two)

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    Correct answer: A. A security group is stateful, that is, it automatically allows the return traffic · D. A network access control list (network ACL) contains a numbered list of rules and evaluates these rules in the increasing order while deciding whether to allow the traffic

    Security groups are stateful, automatically allowing return traffic regardless of inbound rules. Network access control lists are stateless, meaning you must explicitly allow return traffic, and they evaluate numbered rules sequentially from lowest to highest.

  5. Question 133 of 381Which AWS service can be used to execute code triggered by new files being uploaded to Amazon Simple Storage Service (Amazon S3)?

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    Correct answer: D. AWS Lambda

    AWS Lambda is a serverless compute service that runs code in response to events like S3 object uploads. While Simple Queue Service can receive S3 event notifications, it cannot execute code itself, making Lambda the correct choice.

  6. Question 134 of 381Which pillar of the AWS Well-Architected Framework recommends maintaining infrastructure as code (IaC)?

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    Correct answer: C. Operational Excellence

    The Operational Excellence pillar champions running and monitoring systems, which includes managing infrastructure as code. For your exam, associate the practice of automating operational procedures and infrastructure deployments directly with this specific pillar.

  7. Question 135 of 381AWS Lambda pricing is based on which of the following criteria? (Select two)

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    Correct answer: D. Number of requests for the AWS Lambda function · E. The time it takes for the AWS Lambda function to execute

    AWS Lambda bills you based on the total number of requests and the execution duration of your code. The deployment package size only affects storage limits, while your programming language runtime choice has no impact on the final price.

  8. Question 136 of 381Which AWS service can be used for online analytical processing?

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    Correct answer: B. Amazon Redshift

    Amazon Redshift is the correct choice because it is a fully managed data warehouse designed specifically for running complex analytical queries. For the exam, remember that traditional databases like Amazon RDS handle transactional workloads, whereas Redshift targets analytics and reporting.

  9. Question 137 of 381An IT company has a hybrid cloud architecture and it wants to centralize the server logs for its Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (Amazon EC2) instances and on-premises servers. Which of the following is the MOST effective for this use-case?

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    Correct answer: C. Use Amazon CloudWatch Logs for both the Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (Amazon EC2) instance and the on-premises servers

    Amazon CloudWatch Logs is correct because it can monitor and store log files from both Amazon EC2 instances and on-premises servers, creating a centralized location. Be careful not to choose AWS CloudTrail, which specifically records API activity for AWS accounts rather than application server logs.

  10. Question 138 of 381As a Cloud Practitioner, which Amazon Simple Storage Service (Amazon S3) storage class would you recommend for data archival?

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    Correct answer: D. Amazon S3 Glacier Flexible Retrieval

    Amazon S3 Glacier Flexible Retrieval is the correct choice because it provides low-cost storage designed specifically for long-term archiving and backups. For the exam, use One Zone-Infrequent Access for rarely accessed but quickly needed data, and use Glacier classes when immediate retrieval is unnecessary.

  11. Question 139 of 381A company has a static website hosted on an Amazon Simple Storage Service (Amazon S3) bucket in an AWS Region in Asia. Although most of its users are in Asia, now it wants to drive growth globally. How can it improve the global performance of its static website?

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    Correct answer: D. Use Amazon CloudFront to improve the performance of your website

    Amazon CloudFront caches your static website files at edge locations globally, significantly reducing latency for international users. S3 Transfer Acceleration is for uploads, not downloads, making it the strongest distractor for this scenario.

  12. Question 140 of 381An organization maintains separate Amazon Virtual Private Clouds (Amazon VPC) for each of its departments. With expanding business, the organization now wants to connect all Amazon Virtual Private Clouds (Amazon VPC) for better departmental collaboration. Which AWS service will help the organization tackle the issue effectively?

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    Correct answer: A. AWS Transit Gateway

    AWS Transit Gateway acts as a central hub to interconnect multiple VPCs, simplifying complex network topologies. VPC peering is a weaker distractor because it requires separate connections for each pair and lacks transitive routing.

  13. Question 141 of 381What is the primary benefit of deploying an Amazon Relational Database Service (Amazon RDS) database in a Read Replica configuration?

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    Correct answer: B. Read Replica improves database scalability

    Amazon RDS Read Replicas improve database scalability by offloading read traffic from the primary instance. Do not confuse this with Multi-AZ deployments, which provide high availability and durability instead of scaling.

  14. Question 142 of 381Which of the following statements are CORRECT about the AWS Auto Scaling group? (Select two)

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    Correct answer: C. Auto Scaling group scales out and adds more number of Amazon EC2 instances to match an increase in demand · E. Auto Scaling group scales in and reduces the number of Amazon EC2 instances to match a decrease in demand

    Auto Scaling groups scale horizontally by adding instances during scale out and removing instances during scale in. Upgrading to larger instance sizes is scaling vertically, which Auto Scaling groups do not handle automatically.

  15. Question 143 of 381Which AWS service protects your AWS account by monitoring malicious activity and detecting threats?

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    Correct answer: D. Amazon GuardDuty

    Amazon GuardDuty is an intelligent threat detection service that continuously monitors for malicious activity across your AWS accounts. CloudTrail records API activity for auditing, but it does not actively detect threats.

  16. Question 144 of 381Which of the following is a part of the AWS Global Infrastructure?

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    Correct answer: B. AWS Region

    An AWS Region is a physical geographic location hosting AWS data centers, forming the foundation of the AWS Global Infrastructure. VPCs and subnets are logical customer constructs you build inside those regions.

  17. Question 145 of 381A financial services company must meet compliance requirements that mandate storing multiple copies of data in geographically distant locations. As the company uses Amazon Simple Storage Service (Amazon S3) as its main storage service, which of the following represents the MOST resource-efficient solution for this use-case?

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    Correct answer: B. Use S3 cross-region replication (S3 CRR) to replicate data between distant AWS Regions

    S3 Cross-Region Replication asynchronously copies your objects to a bucket in a different region, meeting compliance needs efficiently. Writing custom Lambda functions or EC2 scripts is a distractor that requires unnecessary operational overhead.

  18. Question 146 of 381According to the AWS Shared Responsibility Model, which of the following are the responsibilities of the customer? (Select two)

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    Correct answer: A. Operating system patches and updates of an Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (Amazon EC2) instance · D. Managing IAM users and roles

    Under the Shared Responsibility Model, customers handle security in the cloud, including EC2 operating system patches and IAM management. AWS is responsible for the global network security and protecting the underlying physical infrastructure.

  19. Question 147 of 381Which AWS service can be used to automate code deployment to Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (Amazon EC2) instances as well as on-premises instances?

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    Correct answer: A. AWS CodeDeploy

    AWS CodeDeploy is correct because it specifically automates software deployments to both Amazon EC2 instances and on-premises servers. Remember that AWS CodePipeline only orchestrates the overall continuous delivery workflow by integrating various tools, while AWS CodeCommit securely hosts the source code repositories.

  20. Question 148 of 381Which of the following are correct statements regarding the AWS Shared Responsibility Model? (Select two)

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    Correct answer: A. AWS is responsible for Security 'of' the Cloud · C. For abstracted services like Amazon S3, AWS operates the infrastructure layer, the operating system, and platforms

    AWS is responsible for security of the cloud, managing the physical infrastructure and host operating systems. For abstracted services like S3, AWS fully manages the underlying platform, whereas customers handle guest operating systems and application security.

  21. Question 149 of 381Which of the following is the best way to protect your data from accidental deletion on Amazon S3?

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    Correct answer: B. Amazon S3 Versioning

    Amazon S3 Versioning is the right choice because it preserves, retrieves, and restores every variant of an object, directly protecting against accidental deletion or overwrites. Lifecycle rules move data between storage classes, while Transfer Acceleration simply improves upload speeds.

  22. Question 150 of 381Which of the following cloud computing models does the Gmail service represent?

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    Correct answer: C. Software as a service (SaaS)

    Gmail represents Software as a Service because it provides a complete, fully managed application directly to the end user over the internet. For the exam, associate SaaS with finished applications managed entirely by the provider, whereas IaaS and PaaS require you to build or manage components.

  23. Question 151 of 381A medical device company is looking for a durable and cost-effective way of storing their historic data. Due to compliance requirements, the data must be stored for 10 years. Which AWS Storage solution will you suggest?

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    Correct answer: A. Amazon S3 Glacier Deep Archive

    Amazon S3 Glacier Deep Archive is the lowest-cost storage class, explicitly designed for long-term retention of data to meet strict regulatory compliance. While Glacier Flexible Retrieval is also for archives, it costs slightly more than the Deep Archive tier.

  24. Question 152 of 381A leading research firm needs to access information available in old patents and documents (such as PDFs, Text Files, Word documents, etc) present in its huge knowledge base. The firm is looking for a powerful search tool that can dig into these knowledge resources and return the most relevant files/documents. Which of the following is the correct service to address this requirement?

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    Correct answer: C. Amazon Kendra

    Amazon Kendra is an intelligent search service that uses machine learning to extract precise answers from unstructured data like PDFs and text files. Remember that Comprehend only extracts insights and entities from text, whereas Kendra functions as a natural language search engine.

  25. Question 153 of 381A development team is looking for a forum where the most frequent questions and requests from AWS customers are listed along with AWS provided solutions. Which AWS forum/service can be used for troubleshooting an issue or checking for a solution?

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    Correct answer: C. AWS Knowledge Center

    The AWS Knowledge Center provides actionable solutions to the most frequent requests and common problems faced by AWS customers. The Support Center is a strong distractor, but it is used to open and manage technical support cases rather than browse self-service articles.

  26. Question 154 of 381Which Amazon Simple Storage Service (Amazon S3) storage class offers the lowest availability?

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    Correct answer: B. Amazon S3 One Zone-Infrequent Access (S3 One Zone-IA)

    S3 One Zone-Infrequent Access stores data in a single Availability Zone, giving it the lowest availability of all S3 classes. Standard and Intelligent-Tiering span multiple Availability Zones, while Glacier is primarily designed for long-term archival.

  27. Question 155 of 381Which Amazon Route 53 routing policy would you use when you want to route your traffic in an active-passive configuration?

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    Correct answer: C. Failover routing

    Failover routing routes traffic to a secondary resource only when the primary resource fails health checks, creating an active-passive setup. Weighted routing splits traffic proportionally, which is used for load balancing or testing rather than simple failover.

  28. Question 156 of 381Which AWS service can be used as an in-memory database with high-performance and low latency?

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    Correct answer: B. Amazon ElastiCache

    ElastiCache is a fully managed in-memory data store that delivers microsecond latency for caching and real-time workloads. RDS relies on disk-backed storage, and DynamoDB is a serverless NoSQL database, so neither provides true in-memory performance.

  29. Question 157 of 381Which of the following AWS entities provides the information required to launch an Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (Amazon EC2) instance?

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    Correct answer: B. Amazon Machine Image (AMI)

    An Amazon Machine Image provides the required template information to launch an instance, including the operating system. EBS provides block storage, EFS provides file storage, and Lambda runs serverless code without requiring a launch template.

  30. Question 158 of 381Which of the following AWS services specialize in data migration from on-premises to AWS Cloud? (Select two)

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    Correct answer: C. AWS Database Migration Service (AWS DMS) · E. AWS Snowball

    Database Migration Service and Snowball directly facilitate large-scale data migration into AWS. Direct Connect and Site-to-Site VPN establish network connectivity but require you to provide the actual transfer mechanisms.

  31. Question 159 of 381Under the AWS Shared Responsibility Model, which of the following is the responsibility of a customer regarding AWS Lambda?

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    Correct answer: D. Maintain versions of an AWS Lambda function

    Maintaining function versions is the correct answer because managing code and platform configurations remains the customer's responsibility under the shared responsibility model. AWS manages the underlying infrastructure and runtime environments, so patching operating systems or networking components is handled automatically by the provider.

  32. Question 160 of 381Which of the following AWS services have data encryption automatically enabled? (Select two.)

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    Correct answer: C. AWS Storage Gateway · E. Amazon Simple Storage Service (Amazon S3)

    Amazon S3 and AWS Storage Gateway both have encryption enabled automatically by default to protect your data. For the exam, remember that you must manually enable encryption on other storage services like EBS and EFS.

  33. Question 161 of 381Which of the following AWS services offer block-level storage? (Select two)

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    Correct answer: D. Instance Store · E. Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS)

    Instance Store and Amazon Elastic Block Store provide block-level storage. For the exam, remember that S3 is object storage, EFS is file storage, and ECS is a container orchestration service, not a storage type.

  34. Question 162 of 381A global e-commerce platform wants to restrict access to its website from specific countries to comply with regional regulations. Which AWS service is best suited to implement this restriction?

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    Correct answer: B. Amazon WAF

    Amazon WAF is a web application firewall that lets you create geographic match conditions to block traffic from specific countries. Shield protects against DDoS attacks but does not handle geographic restrictions.

  35. Question 163 of 381A financial services enterprise plans to enable Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) for its employees. For ease of travel, they prefer not to use any physical devices to implement Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA). Which of the below options is best suited for this use case?

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    Correct answer: D. Virtual Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) device

    A virtual MFA device runs on a smartphone or tablet, generating time-based codes without requiring physical hardware. Hardware MFA and U2F security keys require carrying a separate physical device, which defeats the travel preference.

  36. Question 164 of 381Amazon CloudWatch billing metric data is stored in which AWS Region?

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    Correct answer: C. US East (N. Virginia) - us-east-1

    CloudWatch billing metric data is always stored in the US East N. Virginia Region, representing worldwide charges. A common exam trap is assuming billing data is stored in the region where the resources are actually provisioned.

  37. Question 165 of 381A multi-national company has its business-critical data stored on a fleet of Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (Amazon EC2) instances, in various countries, configured in region-specific compliance rules. To demonstrate compliance, the company needs to submit historical configurations on a regular basis. Which AWS service is best suited for this requirement?

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    Correct answer: B. AWS Config

    AWS Config records resource configurations over time, enabling compliance auditing and historical troubleshooting. CloudTrail tracks API calls and user activity, while Config focuses specifically on the state of the resources themselves.

  38. Question 166 of 381An AWS hardware failure has impacted one of your Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) volumes. Which AWS service will alert you of the affected resources and provide a remedial action?

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    Correct answer: C. AWS Health Dashboard – Your account health

    The AWS Health Dashboard alerts you to events affecting your specific resources and provides remediation guidance. Trusted Advisor offers general best practice checks, whereas the Health Dashboard is targeted to your exact account resources.

  39. Question 167 of 381Which of the following are recommended best practices for AWS Identity and Access Management (AWS IAM) service? (Select two)

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    Correct answer: B. Rotate credentials regularly · D. Enable multi-factor authentication (MFA) for all users

    Rotating credentials regularly and enabling multi-factor authentication are fundamental IAM security best practices. Always apply least privilege and never share account credentials or root user access keys.

  40. Question 168 of 381Which of the following use cases is best suited for Amazon EFS Standard-Infrequent Access (EFS Standard-IA) storage class?

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    Correct answer: C. Storing files in an accessible location to satisfy audit requirements

    EFS Standard Infrequent Access offers lower costs for files accessed less frequently while remaining readily accessible for audits. It is a multi-zone file system, whereas One Zone is for single availability zone storage.

  41. Question 169 of 381Which AWS service will you use to privately connect your virtual private cloud (VPC) to Amazon Simple Storage Service (Amazon S3)?

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    Correct answer: D. VPC Endpoint

    A VPC endpoint privately connects your virtual private cloud to services like S3 without needing an internet gateway. Remember that S3 and DynamoDB use gateway endpoints, while most other services use interface endpoints.

  42. Question 170 of 381AWS Identity and Access Management (AWS IAM) policies are written as JSON documents. Which of the following are mandatory elements of an IAM policy?

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    Correct answer: B. Effect, Action

    Effect and Action are mandatory elements within an IAM policy statement, defining whether access is allowed or denied and the specific operations. Elements like Sid and Condition are optional, providing extra logic or labeling.

  43. Question 171 of 381An IT company has deployed a static website on Amazon Simple Storage Service (Amazon S3), but the website is still inaccessible. As a Cloud Practitioner, which of the following solutions would you suggest to address this issue?

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    Correct answer: D. Fix the Amazon S3 bucket policy

    Fixing the Amazon S3 bucket policy resolves access issues by explicitly allowing the necessary public read permissions for website hosting. For the exam, remember that configuring static website hosting requires disabling block public access settings and attaching a valid bucket policy.

  44. Question 172 of 381Which of the following improves the availability for a fleet of Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (Amazon EC2) instances?

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    Correct answer: A. Deploy the Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (Amazon EC2) instances across different Availability Zones (AZ) in the same AWS Region

    Deploying Amazon EC2 instances across different Availability Zones in the same Region correctly improves availability by isolating workloads from localized failures. Remember that Availability Zones are physically separated data centers within a single Region, not spanning multiple Regions.

  45. Question 173 of 381Which of the following statements is correct regarding the Amazon Elastic File System (Amazon EFS) storage service?

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    Correct answer: A. EC2 instances can access files on an Amazon Elastic File System (Amazon EFS) file system across many Availability Zones (AZ), Regions and VPCs

    Amazon Elastic File System is a regional service natively accessible across multiple Availability Zones, VPCs, and even different Regions using peering connections. Distractors incorrectly restrict this access, but the service inherently provides broad, shared file storage for Linux-based workloads.

  46. Question 174 of 381Which of the following statements are true about Cost Allocation Tags in AWS Billing? (Select two)

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    Correct answer: C. You must activate both AWS generated tags and user-defined tags separately before they can appear in Cost Explorer or on a cost allocation report · D. For each resource, each tag key must be unique, and each tag key can have only one value

    Each tag key must be unique per resource and have exactly one value. Additionally, both user-defined and AWS-generated cost allocation tags must be individually activated in the billing console before they appear in Cost Explorer.

  47. Question 175 of 381Which of the following capabilities does Amazon Rekognition provide as a ready-to-use feature?

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    Correct answer: C. Identify objects in a photo

    Amazon Rekognition identifies objects, people, text, and scenes in photos, acting as a ready-to-use machine learning feature. It does not handle basic image manipulation tasks like resizing or converting to greyscale, which require different image processing services.

  48. Question 176 of 381A research lab wants to optimize the caching capabilities for its scientific computations application running on Amazon EC2 instances. Which Amazon EC2 storage option is best suited for this use case?

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    Correct answer: C. Instance Store

    An instance store provides temporary, high-speed block storage physically attached to the host computer, making it perfect for fast caches and scratch data. Block storage like EBS is persistent, but it cannot match the raw hardware speed needed for temporary data caching.

  49. Question 177 of 381Which AWS service will you use if you have to move large volumes of on-premises data to AWS Cloud from a remote location with limited bandwidth?

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    Correct answer: A. AWS Snowball

    AWS Snowball provides physical devices to move massive datasets offline, bypassing the network constraints of limited bandwidth entirely. Direct Connect takes months to provision and still relies on high-capacity physical network lines, which fails the limited bandwidth constraint.

  50. Question 178 of 381Which budget types can be created under AWS Budgets? (Select three.)

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    Correct answer: C. Usage budget · E. Reservation budget · F. Cost budget

    AWS Budgets lets you create cost, usage, and reservation budgets to track your cloud spending and resource utilization. You can also track Savings Plans, but hardware, software, and resource budgets are not actual features tested on the exam.

  51. Question 179 of 381Which of the following are components of an AWS Site-to-Site VPN connection? (Select two.)

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    Correct answer: D. Customer gateway · E. Virtual private gateway (VGW)

    An AWS Site-to-Site VPN requires a virtual private gateway on the AWS side and a customer gateway representing your on-premises network hardware. Remember that an internet gateway simply allows public traffic into a VPC, while a NAT gateway handles private subnet outbound traffic.

  52. Question 180 of 381An IT company is on a cost-optimization spree and wants to identify all Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (Amazon EC2) instances that are under-utilized. Which AWS services can be used off-the-shelf to address this use-case without needing any manual configurations? (Select two)

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    Correct answer: B. AWS Cost Explorer · C. AWS Trusted Advisor

    Trusted Advisor and Cost Explorer both identify underutilized instances right out of the box with automated rightsizing recommendations. CloudWatch requires manual configuration of alarms and metrics to monitor utilization, so it does not fit the requirement.

  53. Question 181 of 381An enterprise is developing a roadmap for its cloud adoption journey and wants to ensure its IT investments align with business objectives and deliver measurable value. Which perspective of the AWS Cloud Adoption Framework (CAF) addresses the strategy management capability?

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    Correct answer: C. Business Perspective

    The Business Perspective ensures IT investments align with business objectives and deliver measurable value. The Platform Perspective handles technical architecture, while the Governance Perspective focuses on risk and compliance management.

  54. Question 182 of 381Which AWS services/features support High Availability by default? (Select two)

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    Correct answer: C. Amazon Elastic File System (Amazon EFS) · D. Amazon DynamoDB

    DynamoDB and EFS provide built-in high availability by automatically replicating data across multiple availability zones. EBS volumes and subnets are confined to a single availability zone, meaning they require manual setup for resilience.

  55. Question 183 of 381An e-commerce company uses AWS Cloud and would like to receive separate invoices for development and production environments. As a Cloud Practioner, which of the following solutions would you recommend for this use-case?

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    Correct answer: A. Create separate AWS accounts for development and production environments to receive separate invoices

    Creating separate AWS accounts for each environment ensures you naturally receive separate monthly invoices. AWS Organizations actually consolidates billing into one central payer account, while Cost Explorer and tags only help visualize costs.

  56. Question 184 of 381A startup runs its proprietary application on docker containers. As a Cloud Practitioner, which AWS service would you recommend so that the startup can run containers and still have access to the underlying servers?

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    Correct answer: A. Amazon Elastic Container Service (Amazon ECS)

    Amazon Elastic Container Service is correct because it allows you to run Docker containers while retaining direct access and control over the underlying servers. Contrast this with AWS Fargate, which is a serverless compute engine that removes the need to provision or manage any underlying infrastructure.

  57. Question 185 of 381A cyber-security agency uses AWS Cloud and wants to carry out security assessments on its own AWS infrastructure without any prior approval from AWS. Which of the following describes/facilitates this practice?

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    Correct answer: D. Penetration Testing

    Penetration testing is the correct choice because AWS permits customers to perform security assessments on their own infrastructure without prior approval for several common services. Note that prohibited activities like network stress testing still strictly require special authorization from AWS.

  58. Question 186 of 381Which feature of AWS Cloud offers the ability to innovate faster and rapidly develop, test, and launch software applications?

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    Correct answer: A. Agility

    Agility is correct because it specifically describes the cloud benefit of rapidly provisioning resources to accelerate development, testing, and launch cycles. Elasticity involves scaling resources dynamically based on real-time demand, whereas global deployment focuses on reducing latency worldwide.

  59. Question 187 of 381As per the AWS Shared Responsibility Model, Security and Compliance is a shared responsibility between AWS and the customer. Which of the following security services/utilities falls under the purview of AWS under the AWS Shared Responsibility Model?

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    Correct answer: C. AWS Shield Standard

    AWS Shield Standard is automatically enabled for all AWS accounts at no extra cost, making its infrastructure security completely the responsibility of AWS. In contrast, services like WAF and Shield Advanced require customer configuration and management, placing them under customer responsibility.

  60. Question 188 of 381An AWS user is trying to launch an Amazon EC2 instance in a given region. What is the region-specific constraint that the Amazon Machine Image (AMI) must meet so that it can be used for this Amazon EC2 instance?

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    Correct answer: C. You must use an Amazon Machine Image (AMI) from the same region as that of the Amazon EC2 instance. The region of the Amazon Machine Image (AMI) has no bearing on the performance of the Amazon EC2 instance

    An Amazon Machine Image must exist in the same AWS Region where you plan to launch your EC2 instance. You can copy an image to the required region if needed, but the region itself only dictates deployment location and has no impact on instance performance.

  61. Question 189 of 381Which of the following AWS services are regional in scope? (Select two.)

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    Correct answer: A. AWS Lambda · E. Amazon Rekognition

    AWS Lambda and Amazon Rekognition are regional services because they operate and maintain data within a specific geographic AWS Region. Remember that IAM, CloudFront, and WAF operate globally, meaning their configurations apply universally across all your active regions.

  62. Question 190 of 381Compared to the On-Demand Instance prices, what is the highest possible discount offered for Reserved Instances (RI)?

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    Correct answer: C. 72

    Standard Reserved Instances offer a maximum discount of seventy-two percent compared to On-Demand Instance pricing. Memorize this specific seventy-two percent threshold for the exam, as it represents the upper limit of standard reservation savings.

  63. Question 191 of 381Which of the following is correct regarding AWS Shield Advanced pricing?

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    Correct answer: C. AWS Shield Advanced offers protection against higher fees that could result from a DDoS attack

    Shield Advanced includes cost protection, covering unanticipated scaling charges caused by a DDoS attack. The service requires an additional fee regardless of your support plan, so it is not a free inclusion for Business or Enterprise users.

  64. Question 192 of 381A customer is running a comparative study of pricing models of Amazon EFS and Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) that are used with the Amazon EC2 instances that host the application. Which of the following statements are correct regarding this use-case? (Select two)

    Select 2 answers.

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    Correct answer: A. Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) Snapshots are stored incrementally, which means you are billed only for the changed blocks stored · E. You will pay a fee each time you read from or write data stored on the Amazon Elastic File System (Amazon EFS) - Infrequent Access storage class

    EBS snapshots are incremental, so you only pay for changed blocks. EFS Infrequent Access charges lower storage rates but applies access fees for reads and writes, optimizing costs for rarely accessed data.

  65. Question 193 of 381An IT company would like to move its IT resources (including any data and applications) from an AWS Region in the US to another AWS Region in Europe. Which of the following represents the correct solution for this use-case?

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    Correct answer: C. The company should just start creating new resources in the destination AWS Region and then migrate the relevant data and applications into this new AWS Region

    Regions are completely independent, so you must manually create new resources in the destination Region and migrate your data. AWS CloudFormation can deploy the new infrastructure, but it cannot automatically move existing data or applications across regions.

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