Practice for the CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) exam with 17 exam-style practice questions, instant answer reveals, and concise explanations of every correct answer. Topics include: A user has just installed a new graphics card in their PC but it is not functioning properly. What type of software shou. Follow @CertPunch and visit certpunch.com for more certification practice exams and study content.
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What you will practice
- A user has just installed a new graphics card in their PC but it is not functioning properly. What type of so…
- You are installing a new CPU in a computer. Which substance should be applied between the CPU and its heat si…
- You are installing a new network panel and need to connect individual network wires into a patch panel. Which…
- You need to provide remote desktop access to employees, allowing them to work from anywhere while maintaining…
- To improve the security of a corporate network, what device should be installed at the network's perimeter?
- A desktop computer needs to connect to a wired Ethernet network. Which internal hardware component is require…
Answers and explanations
Tap a question to expand the answer and the exam reasoning. Try to commit to your own pick first.
Q1. A user has just installed a new graphics card in their PC but it is not functioning properly. What type of software should they install to ensure the graphics card works correctly?
Answer: A. Graphics driver
Installing a new graphics card requires the correct driver software so the operating system can communicate with the hardware. While antivirus software protects the system, it does not provide the necessary hardware instructions for a newly installed component.
Q2. You are installing a new CPU in a computer. Which substance should be applied between the CPU and its heat sink to enhance heat dissipation?
Answer: A. Thermal paste
Thermal paste fills microscopic gaps between the CPU and the heat sink, ensuring efficient heat transfer and preventing overheating. Adhesives interfere with the thermal interface, and other liquids can cause catastrophic short circuits.
Q3. You are installing a new network panel and need to connect individual network wires into a patch panel. Which tool should you use?
Answer: B. Punchdown tool
A punchdown tool securely inserts and trims individual wires into a patch panel or keystone jack, making it the correct choice for network panel installations. A crimper terminates RJ45 connectors on cable ends instead of wiring a panel.
Q4. You need to provide remote desktop access to employees, allowing them to work from anywhere while maintaining a consistent desktop environment. What technology should you implement to achieve this?
Answer: C. VDI
Virtual Desktop Infrastructure hosts user desktops on a central server, delivering a consistent environment to remote clients. A VPN provides secure network access but does not host the actual desktop environment or operating system.
Q5. To improve the security of a corporate network, what device should be installed at the network's perimeter?
Answer: B. Firewall
A firewall inspects incoming and outgoing network traffic at the perimeter, blocking unauthorized access based on security rules. While a router connects different networks and directs packets, it lacks the robust traffic filtering needed for security.
Q6. A desktop computer needs to connect to a wired Ethernet network. Which internal hardware component is required to facilitate this connection?
Answer: C. Network interface card (NIC)
A Network Interface Card provides the physical hardware port needed to connect a desktop computer to a wired Ethernet network. A router and hub are external network infrastructure devices rather than internal computer components.
Q7. A company wants to install several VoIP phones that are PoE compatible. What type of network switch should they use to eliminate the need for separate power adapters for each phone?
Answer: B. A PoE-enabled switch
A Power over Ethernet switch delivers both electrical power and data over standard cabling, eliminating the need for separate power adapters. Standard switches lack this capability, while a managed switch focuses on configuration rather than power delivery.
Q8. A small business is setting up a simple network and needs a plug-and-play device to connect multiple devices on the same network without any configuration. What type of device should they use?
Answer: B. Unmanaged switch
An unmanaged switch provides simple plug-and-play connectivity without any configuration. A managed switch is incorrect because it requires setup to access advanced features like VLANs, while routers and firewalls connect different networks.
Q9. A network technician is setting up a simple protocol for transferring small configuration files to network devices without needing a connection setup. Which protocol, utilizing a connectionless transport method, is suitable for this task?
Answer: D. TFTP
Trivial File Transfer Protocol uses connectionless transport to move small files quickly with minimal overhead. Unlike protocols like SSH, it lacks robust authentication but is perfect for pushing basic configurations to local routers and switches.
Q10. A company prefers that its employees access their emails in a manner that keeps messages stored on the server, allowing access from multiple devices. Which port is used by the protocol that enables this functionality, known as IMAP?
Answer: C. 143
Port 143 is used by IMAP, which keeps messages on the server so users can access email from multiple devices. POP3 uses port 110, but it typically downloads and deletes messages, making it less ideal for synchronization.
Q11. A network administrator is configuring an email server for sending emails. Which port should they use for Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)?
Answer: A. 25
Simple Mail Transfer Protocol uses port 25 to route and send outgoing emails between servers. For the exam, remember that port 25 handles routing, while ports like 143 are strictly for clients retrieving messages.
Q12. A user frequently reaches their mobile data limit due to high data usage by synchronization services. What setting can they adjust to prevent this?
Answer: B. Limit synchronization to Wi-Fi connections only
Restricting synchronization to Wi-Fi prevents background apps from draining the cellular data plan. Disabling all synchronization is too extreme, while simply reducing frequency still slowly consumes mobile data.
Q13. When configuring a Google Workspace account on a mobile device, what setting should be enabled to ensure that emails are received in real-time?
Answer: B. Push notifications
Enabling push notifications allows the server to immediately deliver new emails to the device as they arrive. Data saver mode restricts background data, which would actually delay real-time email retrieval.
Q14. A user is attempting to connect their Bluetooth keyboard to a new tablet. The keyboard was previously used with another device. What action should the user take on the tablet to begin this process?
Answer: C. Search for the keyboard in the tablet's Bluetooth settings
Searching in Bluetooth settings puts the tablet in discovery mode to locate the keyboard. Entering a PIN is a later step, which only happens after the tablet successfully finds the keyboard and initiates the pairing handshake.
Q15. A user is setting up a wireless router in a crowded apartment complex. Which frequency band should they use for better range and wall penetration, but which may experience more interference?
Answer: A. 2.4GHz
The 2.4 GHz frequency band offers better range and wall penetration than 5 GHz, though it faces more interference. Use 5 GHz for faster speeds over shorter distances, especially in crowded wireless areas.
Q16. A user is traveling in a remote area and notices that their smartphone, which normally uses 4G, is now only showing 2G connectivity. What is the most likely reason for this change?
Answer: B. The area only has 2G network coverage
The smartphone drops to 2G because the remote area only has 2G network coverage. Exceeding a data limit usually throttles speeds or adds charges, while airplane mode disables all cellular connectivity entirely.
Q17. A user notices that their smartphone only receives emails when they open their email app. Which feature should they enable for real-time email notifications?
Answer: B. Push notifications
Enabling push notifications allows the server to automatically send emails to the device in real time. Manual synchronization requires the user to actively open the app, and data saver mode restricts background data to conserve usage.
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