Practice for the CCNA exam with 24 multiple-choice questions. Answer each question before the reveal, then review the explanation to understand the reasoning.
This is Part 2/8 in the CertPunch CCNA practice exam series.
Topics covered: switching, routing, subnetting, access control lists, wireless, security fundamentals, and network troubleshooting.
More practice: certpunch.com
What you will practice
- Which of the following subnet masks should you use when using a class B address and ensuring at least 300 sub…
- Which routing protocol uses 'cost' as a metric?
- Which of the following are best practices when placing multiple APs in a Wireless LAN (select 2)?
- Which device allows users to connect to the network using a single or double radio?
- Which of the following is the benefit of QoS?
- Which command should be used to start Negotiation themselves by LACP?
Answers and explanations
Tap a question to expand the answer and the exam reasoning. Try to commit to your own pick first.
Q1. Which of the following subnet masks should you use when using a class B address and ensuring at least 300 subnets with 50 hosts per subnet? (select 2)
Answer: A,E. * 255.255.255.192 || * 255.255.255.128
The correct answer demonstrates subnetting calculations for sufficient subnets and hosts. The distractor trap is confusing the subnet and host bit requirements for a given mask.
Q2. Which routing protocol uses 'cost' as a metric?
Answer: C. * OSPF
The correct answer proves OSPF's use of cost as a metric. The distractor cue is eliminating EIGRP, which uses composite metrics, and RIP, which uses hop count.
Q3. Which of the following are best practices when placing multiple APs in a Wireless LAN (select 2)?
Answer: A,E. * Arrange them so as to have no gaps in coverage || * Channel assignment to avoid overlapping
The correct answers prove coverage continuity and non-overlapping channels are best practices. The distractor trap is choosing channel reuse strategies that cause co-channel interference.
Q4. Which device allows users to connect to the network using a single or double radio?
Answer: B. access point
The correct answer identifies an access point as the radio-frequency connection device. The elimination cue is distinguishing it from management and switching devices.
Q5. Which of the following is the benefit of QoS?
Answer: D. * Improves IP phone call quality
The correct answer proves that QoS improves real-time application quality. The elimination cue is recognizing that other functions are provided by different protocols like NTP or FHRP.
Q6. Which command should be used to start Negotiation themselves by LACP?
Answer: D. * channel-group 1 mode active
The correct answer confirms that 'active' mode initiates LACP negotiation. The trap is mistaking passive mode for initiating the process.
Q7. Which command downloads iOS from the server to the router to replace the router's iOS?
Answer: F. * copy tftp flash
The copy tftp flash command downloads an IOS image from a TFTP server to the router's flash memory.
Q8. RFC 1918 specifies what address range?
Answer: E. * Private address
Correct answer defines private address ranges. The distractors are clearly other public IANA address types, making this straightforward.
Q9. What are two benefits of using a single OSPF area network design? (Choose two.)
Answer: A,C. It reduces the types of LSAs that are generated. || It removes the need for virtual links.
The correct answers prove that a single OSPF area minimizes link-state advertisement types and eliminates the need for virtual links. The trap is distractor B, as a single area reduces LSA processing time, and distractor D is incorrect because CPU load remains high for LSDB maintenance.
Q10. At which layer of the OSI model is RSTP used to prevent loops?
Answer: A. Data link
The correct answer proves that RSTP operates at the data link layer. The trap is distractors B, C, and D, which are incorrect because RSTP is a Layer 2 protocol, not physical, network, or transport.
Q11. Which type of EIGRP route entry describes a feasible successor?
Answer: D. a backup route, stored in the topology table
The correct answer proves that a feasible successor is a backup route in the topology table. Distractors B and C are eliminated because feasible successors are not in the routing table, only the topology table.
Q12. A network administrator creates a layer 3 EtherChannel, bundling four interfaces into channel group 1. On what interface is the IP address configured?
Answer: D. the port-channel 1 interface
In a Layer 3 EtherChannel, the IP address is configured on the logical port-channel interface, not on the physical member interfaces.
Q13. Switch ports operating in which two roles will forward traffic according to the IEEE 802.1w standard? (Choose two.)
Answer: B,C. root || designated
The root and designated port roles in Rapid PVST+ will always forward data traffic, while alternate and backup ports are in a blocking state.
Q14. Which three statements are typical characteristics of VLAN arrangements? (Choose three.)
Answer: D,E,F. A switch maintains a separate bridging table for each VLAN. || Each VLAN uses a separate address space. || Connectivity between VLANs requires a Layer 3 device.
Each VLAN has a separate address space and bridging table. Inter-VLAN routing requires a Layer 3 device. VLANs can span multiple switches.
Q15. A router receives information about network 192.168.10.0/24 from multiple sources. What will the router consider the most reliable information about the path to that network?
Answer: A. a directly connected interface with an address of 192.168.10.254/24
The correct answer proves that directly connected routes have the lowest administrative distance and are preferred over static or dynamic routes. The trap is confusing source reliability with router routing protocol preference.
Q16. What is the best way to verify that a host has a path to other hosts in different networks?
Answer: A. Ping the remote network.
The correct answer proves that pinging a remote network verifies end-to-end IP connectivity across routers. The distractors only verify local connectivity or device-specific settings.
Q17. Which of the following services use UDP? (Choose three.)
Answer: A,C,E. DNS || SNMP || TFTP
UDP is a connectionless protocol used for DNS, SNMP, and TFTP. TCP-based services like Telnet, SMTP, and HTTP are distractors.
Q18. Which two states are the port states when RSTP has converged? (Choose two.)
Answer: A,B. Discarding || Forwarding
RSTP converged ports are in Discarding or Forwarding states. Learning and Listening are transitional states.
Q19. What is the default Syslog facility level?
Answer: A. local7
Local7 is the default facility level for user-defined messages. Other local levels are incorrect.
Q20. Which command can check the router that is DR (select 2) * show running-config
Answer: B,D. * show IP OSPF Interface Brief || * show ip ospf neighbor
The correct answers prove that OSPF DR/BDR status is verified with neighbor or interface-specific commands. The distractor, 'show running-config', displays static configurations, not dynamic router states like DR/BDR roles.
Q21. Which of the following descriptions are correct about the SDN controller (select 2) * It is security equipment used to prevent external attacks and unauthorized access
Answer: B,C. * There are types such as APIC and APIC-EM || * It is software that centrally manages network devices
The correct answers prove that SDN controllers are central management software, with Cisco examples like APIC and ACI. The distractor incorrectly describes a firewall, while 'no Cisco controller' is false.
Q22. Which of the following are a correct description of CSMA / CD operations (select 2)
Answer: A,E. * While the cable is being used it will wait without sending data || * If a collision is detected, it will send the data after waiting for a random amount of time
The correct answers prove that CSMA/CD involves waiting for idle medium and random backoff after collisions. The distractor incorrectly claims simultaneous transmission or prioritized retransmission, which violates CSMA/CD rules.
Q23. A network administrator needs to configure port security on a switch. Which two statements are true?
Answer: B,C. The sticky learning feature allows the addition of dynamically learned addresses to the running configuration. || When dynamic MAC address learning is enabled on an interface, the switch can learn new addresses, up to the maximum defined.
Port security learns new MAC addresses up to the configured maximum. The sticky learning feature adds these addresses to the running configuration.
Q24. What is the purpose of the POST operation on a router?
Answer: D. determine whether additional hardware has been added
Correct answer demonstrates understanding of router boot sequence. The trap is confusing boot sequence steps with hardware detection.
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