11 CLF-C02 practice questions with answer reveals and spoken explanations. Choose before the reveal and keep your score.
Certification: AWS Certified Cloud Practitioner (CLF-C02). Independent practice, not an official exam.
How to use this round:
– Pause each question if you need more time to decide.
– Compare your answer after the reveal.
– Review the concepts you missed, then practice again.
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What you will practice
- For what purpose would a Cloud Practitioner access AWS Artifact?
- Which AWS service can a team use to deploy infrastructure on AWS using familiar programming languages?
- A company is deploying a new web application in a single AWS Region that will be used by users globally. Whic…
- Which AWS service provides a managed software version control system?
- A company is building a serverless workflow that coordinates multiple AWS services into a reliable applicatio…
- A company is launching a new website which is expected to have highly variable levels of traffic. The website…
Answers and explanations
Tap a question to expand the answer and the exam reasoning. Try to commit to your own pick first.
Q1. For what purpose would a Cloud Practitioner access AWS Artifact?
Answer: A. Gain access to AWS security and compliance documents.
AWS Artifact provides on-demand downloads of AWS compliance reports such as SOC and PCI documents plus select agreements. A common trap is thinking Artifact generates your own assessment reports; it only supplies AWS-side audit artifacts.
Q2. Which AWS service can a team use to deploy infrastructure on AWS using familiar programming languages?
Answer: C. AWS Cloud Development Kit (AWS CDK)
The AWS CDK lets you define infrastructure in familiar programming languages and synthesizes it into CloudFormation templates. Distinguish it from the Code* family, which covers source control, reviews, and pipelines rather than infrastructure definitions.
Q3. A company is deploying a new web application in a single AWS Region that will be used by users globally. Which AWS services will assist with lowering latency and improving transfer speeds for the global users? (Select TWO.)
Answer: A,D. Amazon CloudFront || AWS Global Accelerator
CloudFront caches content at edge locations and Global Accelerator routes traffic over the AWS backbone, both cutting latency for global users. Direct Connect only helps a single fixed location reach AWS privately, so it fails the distributed-users test.
Q4. Which AWS service provides a managed software version control system?
Answer: A. AWS CodeCommit
AWS CodeCommit is the managed, Git-based source control service in the AWS developer tools family. CodeDeploy handles deployments and CodePipeline orchestrates release pipelines, so neither stores repositories.
Q5. A company is building a serverless workflow that coordinates multiple AWS services into a reliable application. They want a visual workflow that can track the status of each step in the application. Which AWS service would facilitate creat…
Answer: D. AWS Step Functions
AWS Step Functions coordinates AWS services into serverless workflows with a visual console that tracks each step's status. Lambda runs code on events but does not provide visual workflow orchestration or built-in step tracking.
Q6. A company is launching a new website which is expected to have highly variable levels of traffic. The website will run on Amazon EC2 and must be highly available. What is the MOST cost-effective approach?
Answer: A. Create an Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling group and configure an Elastic Load Balancer.
An Auto Scaling group with an Elastic Load Balancer automatically matches capacity to variable demand while maintaining availability. Sizing for peak traffic wastes money during low-demand periods, defeating cost-effectiveness.
Q7. A Cloud Practitioner needs a tool that can assist with viewing and managing AWS costs and usage over time. Which tool should the Cloud Practitioner use?
Answer: A. AWS Cost Explorer
AWS Cost Explorer provides visual reports for analyzing and managing costs and usage over time. AWS Budgets sets alerts against spending thresholds but is not designed for exploring historical cost and usage trends.
Q8. A company needs to publish messages to a thousands of subscribers simultaneously using a push mechanism. Which AWS service should the company use?
Answer: B. Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS)
Amazon SNS uses a push-based publish/subscribe model to fan out messages to thousands of subscribers simultaneously. SQS is pull-based queueing for decoupling components, not broadcast pub/sub delivery.
Q9. An Amazon Virtual Private Cloud (VPC) can include multiple:
Answer: C. Availability Zones.
A VPC spans all Availability Zones in its Region, and you place subnets in each one for high availability. Note that only one internet gateway can be attached per VPC, so that option fails.
Q10. A company is deploying a new workload and software licensing requirements dictate that the workload must be run on a specific, physical server. Which Amazon EC2 instance deployment option should be used?
Answer: D. Dedicated Hosts
Dedicated Hosts give you a specific physical server, which satisfies licensing and compliance requirements. Dedicated Instances only isolate hardware at the instance level, so you don't control which physical server is used.
Q11. A company must provide access to AWS resources for their employees. Which security practices should they follow? (Select TWO.)
Answer: A,E. Create IAM policies based on least privilege principles. || Enable multi-factor authentication for users.
Least-privilege IAM policies and multi-factor authentication are core AWS security best practices. Remember that roles cannot be attached to IAM groups, and IAM is a global service with no regional users.
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